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#1 User is offline   jillybean 

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Posted 2006-August-30, 22:07

Scoring: IMP

1:1
?


How do you proceed? Upgrading this to 2nt would have solved my problems but 2245 seemed like too much of a stretch.

tyia
jb
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#2 User is offline   keylime 

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Posted 2006-August-30, 22:20

Nothing wrong here with a 3 jump. You're missing a club for a 4 jump, which most adv. players I've run across use as a 64xx hand with fit for responder also showing a longish opening minor.
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#3 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2006-August-30, 22:28

The "official definition" for "SAYC" does not answer one critical Q here, possibly defined in your appraoch, namely whether a 1 opening might be a canape (4/5). Even if so, 1 is likely preferred with 4/6. This is all relevant in determining the strength of a raise of the 1 response to 2.

I have little idea as to "conventional wisdom" here. However, my personal thought is that 1 should be the preferred opening with a weakish 4/5. Further, with 4/6 and weakish, I will typically either open 1 anyway (if I am OK with passing a courtesy correction or rebidding 3) or open 1 and repeat clubs even if partner introduces diamonds.

This approach allows a 1...2 auction to always show extra stuff, even if partner's response was 1. (I could be convinced to have 1-P-1-P-3 shows a weak diamond-club two-suiter.)

This approach solves this deal's problem.

Assuming this is NOT the approach, I suppose you are forced to jump to 3.
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#4 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2006-August-31, 00:31

Hi,

I agree, 3D seems to be your bid.
This shows 5-4in the minors, and
16-18HCP,which you have.

You have max. values, but this
happens sometimes.

The alternative to 3D is a 2NT rebid,
right on values, but they surely will
attack a mayor, so I would not bid it.

I would not have opened 2NT.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
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#5 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2006-August-31, 08:43

I just jump rebid 3. OK..I have a max for that action, but if PD has a bare min 1 responce and passes, it's there's a reasonable chance that we cannot stand a lead in 3NT or perhaps cannot take 9 tricks after a lead.

I think this is a close decision to take a little gamble and rebid 2NT, however, in hopes that we can make 3NT (assuming PD has more than a bare min) after a major suit lead.

3 gives support with support and may set us on a course to a 6 slam.
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#6 User is offline   jillybean 

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Posted 2006-August-31, 10:17

I hate 3 but ok. I am getting confused with weak jumps, my bad strong jumps and what is "standard"
"And no matter what methods you play, it is essential, for anyone aspiring to learn to be a good player, to learn the importance of bidding shape properly. MikeH
"100% certain that many excellent players would disagree. This is far more about style/judgment than right vs. wrong." Fred
"Hysterical Raisins again - this time on the World stage, not just the ACBL" mycroft
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#7 User is offline   SoTired 

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Posted 2006-August-31, 10:27

Obvious 3D rebid. 2N rebid 2nd choice, but too easy for opps to find right major lead to set 3N.

2N opener? (Assuming 20-21). Too lite. Once you start down that path, everything 18+ starts looking like a 2N opener. I might upgrade a special 19 to 2N with the right 5-card minor, but not an 18. Even if J was Q, I would not upgrade this hand because the club suit is too strong.
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#8 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2006-August-31, 11:49

Another vote for 3.

I wouldn't be too upset if partner rebid 2NT on this sort of hand though. Even if you are open in one of the majors you still might 3NT when the wrong suit is lead. The fact that there have been no overcalls slightly suggests that LHO doesn't have a totally obvious lead in one of the majors.

An opening 2NT is too rich for me.
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#9 User is offline   AdiBichea 

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Posted 2006-August-31, 13:44

I vote for 3! 17-19HCP .. part could pas
if part continue with:
3, now i bid 3NT
3, now i bid 4 to show 5x
3NT, GLP
Regards, Adi Bichea [BIL member]
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#10 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2006-August-31, 16:37

3 sounds like common sense here.

Quote

The "official definition" for "SAYC" does not answer one critical Q here, possibly defined in your appraoch, namely whether a 1♦ opening might be a canape (4♦/5♣).


This hand is too strong for this question. Had partner not responded 1 you would have reversed into . However, I think that opening 1 on hands like

x
Kxx
AQxx
KJxxx

is common sense. So it is just as well that others will consider it equally obvious to open 1 ;)
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#11 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2006-September-01, 02:49

Two options:

3, a slight underbid. (Actually, there's no book bid for a 18-20 2245 after 1-1: a systemic hole.)
2NT. Stoppers are for kids.

I prefer 2NT because I'm a hog ;)
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#12 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2006-September-01, 04:19

jillybean2, on Aug 31 2006, 06:17 PM, said:

I hate 3 but ok. I am getting confused with weak jumps, my bad strong jumps and what is "standard"

A jump raise of partner's suit is always invitational in standard (unless you have specific agreements, like Bergen raises and thus 1M-3M as preemptive, or inverted minors).

So about 16-18 by opener, and 10-12 if by responder. Here you are on the maximum side of 3, but that's ok IMO.

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