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1m-1NT in 2/1GF

#1 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2007-April-15, 12:42

I see a lot of convention cards mention 1m-1NT is 6-11HCP with no biddable suit (2NT being balanced GF). Inverted minors is one of the other gadgets, so all that's left is 6-9 "any" or 6-11 with the other minor.

I was wondering if this huge range doesn't ever cause any trouble? What is opener supposed to do with 14HCP? Don't you miss too many games? Isn't it better to play 1-2 like in sayc?
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#2 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2007-April-15, 13:17

I play 2/1 a lot and have NEVER played 1NT up to 11 HCP after a minor but it doesn't look like something I'd recommend...
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#3 User is offline   BillHiggin 

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Posted 2007-April-15, 13:30

In 2/1 there is a "hole" involving invite strength responder hands to 1 when not holding either major. This "hole" is kind of like the lump in a bed - no matter what you do to fix it, the best you can really do is move it around. Note that one can fudge the 1 response to 1, so the "hole" does not become a problem over that opening.

Often, one of the choices made is to minimize the occurances of the 1 opening. Opening 1 with 4-4 or 3-3 minors is common enough. The Italian style of opening 1 with 4=4=3=2 shape also takes pressure off the "hole".

Using 2N as an invitational balanced response is common (but few really like that). Making 2 be less than game-forcing over 1 is used by some (or making 1 3 natural and inviational).

Still, the lump just moves around. Making the 1N response be extra wide is simply another choice as to where to "stash the problem". While the convention card may list that range for 1N response to 1m, in practice you will likely find that the range shrinks over 1.

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#4 User is offline   pbleighton 

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Posted 2007-April-15, 13:41

"Using 2N as an invitational balanced response is common (but few really like that)."

This must vary by location, in New England (U.S.) virtually everyone plays it this way.

Generally, I think the 6-11 1NT response only makes sense in a "pure" 2/1 system, where 1D-2C and 1D-2NT are GF. Most people I know play 1D-2C as F1, and as for 1m-2NT, see above.

Peter
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#5 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2007-April-15, 15:02

I play the 2N invitation with all partners except with those where I have a "gadget" for the 1 - 2 that takes care of it.
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#6 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2007-April-15, 15:03

Gerben42, on Apr 15 2007, 10:02 PM, said:

I play the 2N invitation with all partners except with those where I have a "gadget" for the 1 - 2 that takes care of it.

Can you explain that gadget please?
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#7 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2007-April-16, 15:05

I'm sure it was on the forum before and I hate repeating myself but I still found it somewhere around here:
http://www.geocities...ridge/1d2c.html
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#8 User is online   awm 

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Posted 2007-April-16, 15:28

It certainly makes sense to play that you bid 1NT with a hand not interested in game opposite the frequent "weak notrump" variant of 1m opening. After all, this is what partner usually has and it's undesirable to play 2NT opposite this hand type when you wouldn't realistically be able to make 3nt even opposite a max. Whether this means that 1m-1nt is "up to 10" or "up to 11" depends on how aggressive you want to be (perhaps on form of scoring) and the exact range of the strong 1nt opening.

As to doing away with "invitational notrump" responses completely, you may be able to do it if you open 1nt on most balanced 14s and pass balanced 11s, since the balanced range is now only 12-13. Alternatively over 1 you can use 1 to take care of one of the ranges.

A very simple structure over 1-2 is to play that opener's 2 rebid is a catch-all, advertising either any minimum opening bid, or a hand with 6+ where the suit or strength is insufficient for a game-forcing (and suit-setting) 3 rebid. Thus 2 could be bid even on a three card suit at times. All other rebids by opener are natural and forcing to game. After 1-2-2, responder's 2nt and 3 rebids show invites and other bids are natural and forcing to game (occasionally have to bid "better" major with a three-card suit, especially if not playing strong jump shifts). You can probably improve on this structure somewhat, but I'd expect you'd need a lot more artificial bids and have a lot more to remember.
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#9 User is offline   LukeG 

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Posted 2007-April-17, 07:33

Playing strong jump shifts, I like to use the 2 response to 1 as a two way bid - either a "normal" SJS or balanced 10-11. Opener normally relays with 2 after which 2nt by responder is the balanced invite and anything else is the SJS. Any other rebid by opener is game-forcing opposite the balanced invite. If opener wants to signoff in a minor he must first relay with 2.
Luke Gillespie
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#10 User is offline   Apollo81 

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Posted 2007-April-17, 08:20

In my area a lot of good players play 1m-2 as 3-way:
- 11-12 balanced
- mixed raise of 1m
- SJS in hearts

Over this, 2 asks partner's hand:
- 2NT, 3m show the obvious hands
- other bids show the SJS
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#11 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2007-April-17, 09:42

awm, on Apr 16 2007, 01:28 PM, said:

A very simple structure over 1-2 is to play that opener's 2 rebid is a catch-all, advertising either any minimum opening bid, or a hand with 6+ where the suit or strength is insufficient for a game-forcing (and suit-setting) 3 rebid. Thus 2 could be bid even on a three card suit at times. All other rebids by opener are natural and forcing to game. After 1-2-2, responder's 2nt and 3 rebids show invites and other bids are natural and forcing to game (occasionally have to bid "better" major with a three-card suit, especially if not playing strong jump shifts). You can probably improve on this structure somewhat, but I'd expect you'd need a lot more artificial bids and have a lot more to remember.

This is how I play it in one partnership, but we use a 12-14 NT as well, so when 2 is rebid, it can't be a 3 card suit, but could be specifically a 4441, and is usually 5.
"Phil" on BBO
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