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Advancing an overcall

#1 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 11:30

IMPs, red v red, you hold KQTx Kx QJxxx Tx. LHO opens 1, partner overcalls 1, RHO passes. What is your plan? Assume transfer advances of overcalls if you wish.
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#2 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 11:36

1 has become an accepted solution with hands like this and thats my bid.
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#3 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 11:41

pclayton, on Jun 30 2008, 12:36 PM, said:

1 has become an accepted solution with hands like this and thats my bid.

Is it forcing?
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#4 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 11:52

TimG, on Jun 30 2008, 10:41 AM, said:

pclayton, on Jun 30 2008, 12:36 PM, said:

1 has become an accepted solution with hands like this and thats my bid.

Is it forcing?

I made a post about this awhile ago and eventually became convinced that the most standard agreement is forcing with 5+. Whether this is the conclusion of the thread (or even if it's true), I'm not sure.
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#5 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 11:55

I would bid 1. It tends to show 5 but it does not promise 5, IMO. And it is not forcing.
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#6 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 13:09

1 is OK. 2 not bad either. I don't know which is better, frankly.
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Posted 2008-June-30, 13:34

kenrexford, on Jun 30 2008, 02:09 PM, said:

1 is OK.  2 not bad either.  I don't know which is better, frankly.

This sums up how I feel, but even 1N has some appeal.
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#8 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 13:46

TimG, on Jun 30 2008, 12:30 PM, said:

IMPs, red v red, you hold KQTx Kx QJxxx Tx. LHO opens 1, partner overcalls 1, RHO passes. What is your plan? Assume transfer advances of overcalls if you wish.

After a non-forcing 1 or 2, does intervenor's 2 rebid say anything about strength or just an expression of unsuitability for advancer's suit?

What kind of a range would you put on intervenor's simple raise of advancer's suit?

Suppose you do play transfer advances, is this too strong for a transfer to diamonds and then a correction to 2? Simply not enough hearts? Or, flawed in some other way?
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#9 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 14:48

Jlall, on Jun 30 2008, 02:34 PM, said:

kenrexford, on Jun 30 2008, 02:09 PM, said:

1 is OK.  2 not bad either.  I don't know which is better, frankly.

This sums up how I feel, but even 1N has some appeal.

True (1NT appealing), and very tempting if the opponents play some sort of short club approach.
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#10 User is online   mikeh 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 16:01

I know that BW std, as of a few years ago, used 1/1 advances as nonforcing... I don' t think that has changed, but I may be mistaken. Personally, for me it has always been 5+ spades and forcing 1 round.

On the given hand, I would transfer to diamonds and then bid 2.. showing roughly this hand type... this constitutes a maximum, but there is nothing wrong with being maximum, altho it always seems to surprise partner B)

Obviously this plan will work poorly anytime we belong in spades, but bidding spades will rarely work either....surely he will raise with 3 card support, and then where are we?
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#11 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 16:21

I think whether 1 is forcing is a matter of agreement. I prefer to play it forcing, and not promising more than four (unless I'm playing that Michaels includes 4-5 shapes, in which case I think 1 should be forcing with five).

Playing transfers, I'd still want to bid a forcing 1 with this hand. That seems better than transferring to diamonds and then bidding hearts (possibly losing spades) or transferring to diamonds and then bidding spades (possibly getting too high).

Even though I often agree to play it, I don't really understand how a non-forcing 1 advance is supposed to work, but I imagine that
   1    1    pass 1
   pass 2
just shows six decent hearts, with quite a wide range of strength.

1 is non-forcing by default in the current (2001) version of BWS.

This post has been edited by gnasher: 2008-June-30, 16:23

... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#12 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2008-June-30, 16:27

I think the standard from France that we adopted is that 1/1 is 4+ cards and forcing, 2/1 is not forcing (althou encouraging).

This would be an easy 1 with 2 not unreasonable.
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#13 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2008-July-01, 01:07

Fluffy, on Jul 1 2008, 07:27 AM, said:

I think the standard from France that we adopted is that 1/1 is 4+ cards and forcing, 2/1 is not forcing (althou encouraging).

This would be an easy 1 with 2 not unreasonable.

100 % the same here
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#14 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2008-July-01, 05:03

This is invitational, and while I don't think partner will have 4 spades I wouldn't want to miss out on a part score or game in hearts, diamonds or no trumps. I'd 2 transfer to 2 then bid 2, forcing partner, and from my failure to bid 2NT implying no club stop and heart tolerance.

For me a 1 bid shows 5.
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#15 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-July-01, 08:58

I strongly prefer 1S to be NF, I don't think that forcing matches well with an active overcalling style. I would also bid it here I think.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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#16 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2008-July-01, 09:29

TimG, on Jun 30 2008, 12:30 PM, said:

IMPs, red v red, you hold KQTx Kx QJxxx Tx.  LHO opens 1, partner overcalls 1, RHO passes.  What is your plan?  Assume transfer advances of overcalls if you wish.

Thanks for the input. For those who bid 1, if the auction is:

1-1-Pass-1
2-Pass-Pass-?

I'm guessing you now bid 2?

Also, for those bidding a NF 1 which may be only a four-card suit, what do you expect from a raise from partner?

1-1-Pass-1
Pass-2

I'm guessing that this doesn't promise more than three-card support. What kind of strength does it show? Is there a minimum number of spades you need to hold in order to pass 1?
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#17 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-July-01, 09:47

1. I now double. I doubt we'll get to a 5-3 diamond fit this way, but this seems like the best chance to avoid a silly 4-2 spade fit too.

2. This one's easier. You never specified if 1 is forcing. I prefer 'virtual force' - as in if pard overcalled on AJTxx and out, he's not obligated to bid. I'm expecting around 8-11/12 for the raise. Better hands cue - or jump. Therefore I pass.
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#18 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2008-July-01, 11:26

pclayton, on Jul 1 2008, 10:47 AM, said:

2. This one's easier. You never specified if 1 is forcing.

I specified NF.
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#19 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2008-July-01, 11:28

pclayton, on Jul 1 2008, 10:47 AM, said:

1. I now double. I doubt we'll get to a 5-3 diamond fit this way, but this seems like the best chance to avoid a silly 4-2 spade fit too.

So, double shows about 4252?
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#20 User is offline   benlessard 

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Posted 2008-July-01, 14:18

IF 1S isnt forcing its 2C WTP for me. I see no reason to bid 1S NF here.

There are the methods i know for advancing an overcall.

1- the simpler = is same level forcing, 2/1 non forcing
easy 1S with this hand
Popular in France and I think Mike Lawrence is suggesting this method in "overcall"


2- Before the Cue is natural after the cue is transfert. So 2C= diamonds followed by 2H describe this hand neatly. This method is suggested by Marshall Miles and others.


3- All non-jump advance NF so jumping setup a force. 2C WTP
The Diamond are not good for 2D NF and bidding 1S NF is risking to play 4-1, 4-2 fit for no good reason.

4 all non-jump are non-forcing & Jump-shift show fit. So with GF hand you have to start with a cue-bid. Again 2C WTP for me.

5- 1 level NF but 2 level forcing. Maybe 2D is ok but i still prefer 2C
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