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What went wrong? Slam bidding at a club game

Poll: Which is the worst call? (57 member(s) have cast votes)

Which is the worst call?

  1. South's 1S opening (open a minor with a balanced hand!) (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  2. North's 2D response (bid 2C with 2443!) (1 votes [1.75%])

    Percentage of vote: 1.75%

  3. North's 2D response (bid a forcing notrump with this hand!) (1 votes [1.75%])

    Percentage of vote: 1.75%

  4. South's 3D rebid (slow down the auction with 2S!) (24 votes [42.11%])

    Percentage of vote: 42.11%

  5. South's 3D rebid (rebid 2NT on a balanced hand!) (7 votes [12.28%])

    Percentage of vote: 12.28%

  6. North's 3H call (bid 3NT with a balanced hand!) (13 votes [22.81%])

    Percentage of vote: 22.81%

  7. South's 4D call (bid 3S to keep 3NT in the picture!) (7 votes [12.28%])

    Percentage of vote: 12.28%

  8. Something else (1 votes [1.75%])

    Percentage of vote: 1.75%

  9. All the calls were great, just unlucky (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  10. Auction was too awful for words (3 votes [5.26%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.26%

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#21 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-June-17, 13:19

Looks like an auction from 1950.

BTW when you guys say 3D should show extras what does that mean? I think any hand with 4 diamonds should bid 3D, and no hand with 3 diamonds. Good to know about those 5-4 fits... oh wait.

edit: Sorry I spoke too quickly, I think exactly 5134 with extra values should bid 3D.
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#22 User is offline   y66 

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Posted 2009-June-17, 19:21

I don't think South can bid 3D undiscussed.

I like 3H. South can bid 3S if he isn't interested in a diamond slam and doesn't have a club stopper for 3N.

I don't understand 4D.
If you lose all hope, you can always find it again -- Richard Ford in The Sportswriter
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#23 User is offline   jmcw 

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Posted 2009-June-18, 16:56

For me an immediate raise of the Minor shows more than a minimum and at least 3 good trumps. Over 3 I would not consider anything other than 3NT.
2 is a reasonable alternative to raising immediately, this will fetch a 3NT rebid which pretty much shows a 1NT opener in my methods.
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#24 User is offline   jdeegan 

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Posted 2009-June-19, 23:20

:lol: 3, like duh! You have the notorious 5-3-3-2 shape with no stop and a good but minimum hand in terms of HCP. 3 is at least hinting that 6 might be the spot. A noncommital 2 is clearly best. If 5 or 6 is right, partner will let you know, and you will eagerly cooperate.
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#25 User is offline   barryallen 

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Posted 2009-June-22, 09:37

kenrexford, on Jun 14 2009, 02:29 PM, said:

Too many unknowns.  But...

2?  Prefer 2, but not wanting to start that debate again, so I'll buy 2.

3?  Sick.  Sick in the head, sick.  This is even worse when the raise is diamonds, because it evades intelligent notrump probe auctions, because only one unbid suit is available.  Raising clubs is not as bad, because both unbids can be bid.

3?  Depends.  3 should have promised more shape, but it maybe also should have promised more strength, depending on the style here.  I'm not sure, but it seems like some would bid 2 and then 3 with a weaker hand.  So, if 3 was meant as a slam probe because Responder thought Opener had mote strength for their call, sure.

4?  Kind of boxed in.  If I was forced to sit down at the table with Opener's hand at this point in the bidding, though, I'd bid by spade 10 like it was gold and rebid 3 instead.

Just taking a step outside the box for a minute, what do you do when opener has 4 and responds 3? Where do you go from here? Exactly the same problem with only one person to blame! You then have to go back to the 2 bid as the root of the problem?
bridge is never always a game of exact, for those times it's all about percentages, partner and the opponents.
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#26 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-June-22, 10:04

barryallen, on Jun 22 2009, 04:37 PM, said:

Just taking a step outside the box for a minute, what do you do when opener has 4 and responds 3? Where do you go from here? Exactly the same problem with only one person to blame! You then have to go back to the 2 bid as the root of the problem?

With KJTxx,Qx,AKxx,xx, South should bid 3 over 3. Then he might pass 3NT, but if he doesn't responder will put him back to 4 anyway.

With KJTxx,Qxx,AKxx,x, again South should bid 3 over 3, but this time he definitely won't pass 3NT.

3NT is the best contract opposite these hands because of 10, which gives us a guaranteed stop, and because we have enough high-card strength to make 3NT on a club lead without needing any spade tricks. Those are both things that North might have considered before he bid 3.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#27 User is offline   barryallen 

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Posted 2009-June-22, 10:18

gnasher, on Jun 22 2009, 11:04 AM, said:

barryallen, on Jun 22 2009, 04:37 PM, said:

Just taking a step outside the box for a minute, what do you do when opener has 4 and responds 3? Where do you go from here? Exactly the same problem with only one person to blame! You then have to go back to the 2 bid as the root of the problem?

With KJTxx,Qx,AKxx,xx, South should bid 3 over 3. Then he might pass 3NT, but if he doesn't responder will put him back to 4 anyway.

With KJTxx,Qxx,AKxx,x, again South should bid 3 over 3, but this time he definitely won't pass 3NT.

3NT is the best contract opposite these hands because of 10, which gives us a guaranteed stop, and because we have enough high-card strength to make 3NT on a club lead without needing any spade tricks. Those are both things that North might have considered before he bid 3.

There is always the problem of bypassing 3NT on the search for slam in a minor, ending up in an inferior contract costing points. With just a small bit of foresight you can solve all these issues and make things easy for both you and partner subsequently.
bridge is never always a game of exact, for those times it's all about percentages, partner and the opponents.
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