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2/1 BWS 2001 Defaults Stayman follow up

#1 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 02:37



Anybody to help me ?

Playing BWS2001 it is not clear to me what a 3or 3 by responder is after he initiated Stayman (bidding without interventions)

Stayman followed by 3 or 3 is ?


Following the general default, I would say it certainly is forcing, 5card of the bid minor and a 4card major. But is it merely showing game-going values, or is it showing slam-intrest (as it would be playing SAYC).

I tend to believe that the slam-intrest hand is the most efficient solution.

May I hear your opinions please. Thank you.





Bob Herreman
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#2 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 04:06

In BWS it means whatever you and your partner think it should mean:

BWS said:

When a call could logically be interpreted as either forcing or nonforcing and there is no explicit agreement:
...
in a noncompetitive situation, treat as forcing or nonforcing by which seems more sensible to the observer


As for what it should mean in the context of the rest of BWS: this is the only way to bid a hand with four of a major and five of a minor (a transfer to a minor followed by a new suit is defined as shortage). With a game-going 4-6, it would be silly to have to guess what game to play, so I don't think it should promise a slam try. Of course, opposite a very suitable opener, a game-going hand might make slam anyway.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#3 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 04:14

View Postgnasher, on 2011-May-07, 04:06, said:

In BWS it means whatever you and your partner think it should mean:


As for what it should mean in the context of the rest of BWS: this is the only way to bid a hand with four of a major and five of a minor (a transfer to a minor followed by a new suit is defined as shortage). With a game-going 4-6, it would be silly to have to guess what game to play, so I don't think it should promise a slam try. Of course, opposite a very suitable opener, a game-going hand might make slam anyway.





So just a game going hand with doubts about 3NT as a final destination.... ???
Seems reasonable as well. Ijust had some doubts, because in SAYC this sequence shows slam intrest.....

Bottom-line seems to be, that it is one of those sequences that need to be agreed with Partenr.

Thanks for your input.

Bob Herreman
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#4 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 11:26

View Postgnasher, on 2011-May-07, 04:06, said:

.....a game-going hand might make slam anyway.


The situation (Stayman, then 3m) is forcing for sure. But, could be either a hand showing doubt about strain or a hand with slam interest. After two of the 3 possible responses to Stayman, the follow-ups to 3m can clarify what is happening. After the other one (2H), it might get complicated.

1N-2C
2S-3D...3H can be used as a sort of LT type bid with a top NT opener and diamond support. It cannot be natural, because with 4-4 in the majors, opener would have bid 2H the first time. If responder had rebid 3C instead, opener would have a choice of 3D or 3H to show that. In the cases where opener has a max for the minor, responder has room to shut down if she did not have slam interest.

1N-2C
2D-3m..The NT opener has choices of cues at the 3-level to show cooperative interest in the minor slam.

However:

1N-2C
2H-3D...things could get murky. Obviously 3S now would set the 4-4 spade fit. But is 3H agreement of the minor with a max or merely showing a fifth heart?

1N-2C
2H-3C...3D is available, so the above problem is moot.

Another question to answer for your partnership: Does Stayman followed by 3m always show 4M and the longer minor? Having some other way to show one-minor slam interest would be helpful. It doesn't have to be 4-suit xfers; Walsh relays also work just fine in conjunction with 2-suit xfers.
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#5 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 14:51

View Postgnasher, on 2011-May-07, 04:06, said:

In BWS it means whatever you and your partner think it should mean:


As for what it should mean in the context of the rest of BWS: this is the only way to bid a hand with four of a major and five of a minor (a transfer to a minor followed by a new suit is defined as shortage). With a game-going 4-6, it would be silly to have to guess what game to play, so I don't think it should promise a slam try. Of course, opposite a very suitable opener, a game-going hand might make slam anyway.

I am sure everybody who helped constructing BWS or was on the panel to vote on it, as well as 99% of the readers who participated in the polls, assumed that this sequence is forcing. It's so obvious to everyone that it didn't occur anyone to mention it.
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#6 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 01:20

View PostLurpoa, on 2011-May-07, 04:14, said:

So just a game going hand with doubts about 3NT as a final destination.... ???
Seems reasonable as well. Ijust had some doubts, because in SAYC this sequence shows slam intrest.....

Bottom-line seems to be, that it is one of those sequences that need to be agreed with Partenr.

Thanks for your input.



Moreover, 1NT-2C-2whatever-3m in SAYC does not promise a four-card major; this is the only way to start slam auction in a minor, if playing SAYC.
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#7 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 06:55

View Postpeachy, on 2011-May-08, 01:20, said:

Moreover, 1NT-2C-2whatever-3m in SAYC does not promise a four-card major; this is the only way to start slam auction in a minor, if playing SAYC.





Well, well.... indeed... reading the SAYC boklet, I think you are right. I wasn't really aware of that... and would have corrected with a 44 in the majors. But thinking about it, after the slam-intrest, it cannot hurt, to show the 4card spades too.... at the 3level...it is still possible, responder has 4 and 5 or more in his minor.

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#8 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 07:08

View Postcherdano, on 2011-May-07, 14:51, said:

I am sure everybody who helped constructing BWS or was on the panel to vote on it, as well as 99% of the readers who participated in the polls, assumed that this sequence is forcing. It's so obvious to everyone that it didn't occur anyone to mention it.



I don't think the question is "forcing of not ?" , but: does this sequnece show slam-intrest or just a game-going hand, which is not sure if 3NT is the best contract. Tx for your input.


Bob Herreman
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#9 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 07:58

View PostLurpoa, on 2011-May-08, 07:08, said:

I don't think the question is "forcing of not ?" , but: does this sequnece show slam-intrest or just a game-going hand, which is not sure if 3NT is the best contract. Tx for your input.




Answered, starting with Gnasher.
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#10 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 08:11

Sorry I can't read anymore it seems. Anyway, it is game-forcing and doesn't promise slam interest.
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#11 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 08:54

View Postpeachy, on 2011-May-08, 01:20, said:

Moreover, 1NT-2C-2whatever-3m in SAYC does not promise a four-card major; this is the only way to start slam auction in a minor, if playing SAYC.

Does everyone/anyone agree with this ?
I've never heard of it .
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
I don't know if this is from 2001, but is what I learned shortly thereafter:
1NT - 2C
2M - 3m = 4oM/5+m, GF slammish, ie no fit for M

1NT - 2C
2D - 3m = 4 cards M / 5+m GF slammish
Don Stenmark
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#12 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 10:24

View PostTWO4BRIDGE, on 2011-May-08, 08:54, said:

Does everyone/anyone agree with this ?
I've never heard of it .

It's not really a matter of opinion. The definition of SAYC is available here:

http://web2.acbl.org/documentlibrary/play/SP3%20(bk)%20single%20pages.pdf

SAYC booklet said:

RESPONSES AND LATER BIDDING AFTER A 15–17 1NT OPENING

2 is "non-forcing" Stayman, meaning that the bidding may stop in two of a suit. Opener rebids 2 with 4–4 in the majors. If responder rebids three of either minor, he shows slam interest and at least a five-card suit.

If three of a minor showed a four-card major, I expect it would say so.

... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#13 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 10:45

View Postpeachy, on 2011-May-08, 01:20, said:

Moreover, 1NT-2C-2whatever-3m in SAYC does not promise a four-card major; this is the only way to start slam auction in a minor, if playing SAYC.

gnasher.... thx for the ACBL link on SAYC, but NOWHERE does it validate the above statement.

It does NOT say " does not promise a four-card Major " after:
1NT - 2C
2any - 3m = 5+minor, slammish

So, if the auction goes ( the way I might play it ):
1NT - 2C
2H - 3m = 4 cards /5+m, GF slammish
??
...3S = 4/4 in the majors, interested in slam
...4S = 4/4 and not interested in slam

- - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - -
In other words, anytime Responder bids 3m-after-Stayman( and Opener's reply), he DOES promise a four-card Major.
Don Stenmark
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"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

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#14 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 11:00

View PostTWO4BRIDGE, on 2011-May-08, 08:54, said:

Does everyone/anyone agree with this ?
I've never heard of it .
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
I don't know if this is from 2001, but is what I learned shortly thereafter:
1NT - 2C
2M - 3m = 4oM/5+m, GF slammish, ie no fit for M

1NT - 2C
2D - 3m = 4 cards M / 5+m GF slammish


And how, pray tell, were you taught to show a single suited hand with a minor and game forcing values?
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#15 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 11:58

View Posthrothgar, on 2011-May-08, 11:00, said:

And how, pray tell, were you taught to show a single suited hand with a minor and game forcing values?

As Aquahombre said in his post #4 :
" Having some other way to show one-minor slam interest would be helpful. It doesn't have to be 4-suit xfers; Walsh relays also work just fine in conjunction with 2-suit xfers. "

But I see neither are mentioned in the ACBL SAYC booklet.
Only the minor sign-offs and invites are stated.

Sooo, I guess that only leaves the Stayman sequence .... ugh.
Don Stenmark
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#16 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 12:25

View Posthrothgar, on 2011-May-08, 11:00, said:

And how, pray tell, were you taught to show a single suited hand with a minor and game forcing values?

I was "taught" the SAYC way to play noncompetitive NT sequences, but quickly discovered way back in the late 60's that Stayman followed by G.F should really have a major.

View PostTWO4BRIDGE, on 2011-May-08, 11:58, said:

As Aquahombre said in his post #4 :
" Having some other way to show one-minor slam interest would be helpful. It doesn't have to be 4-suit xfers; Walsh relays also work just fine in conjunction with 2-suit xfers. "



Being staid old farts, we choose the Walsh Relay option; but we have seen 4-suit xfer sequences in the hands of competent pairs, and they seem to work nicely, too.
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#17 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 13:28

View Postaguahombre, on 2011-May-08, 12:25, said:


Being staid old farts, we choose the Walsh Relay option; but we have seen 4-suit xfer sequences in the hands of competent pairs, and they seem to work nicely, too.




In other worlds, you're not actually playing SAYC
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#18 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 16:02

View Posthrothgar, on 2011-May-08, 13:28, said:

In other worlds, you're not actually playing SAYC

Nor have we ever.
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#19 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2011-May-08, 16:56

I was wondering why BW has not started polling for BWS 2011?
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#20 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-May-09, 06:45

View Postmike777, on 2011-May-08, 16:56, said:

I was wondering why BW has not started polling for BWS 2011?





Right !
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