[benlessard]

We had 2 XX cases tonight, what is your agreements here.

V/nv
(1H)-2C-(P)-2S
(P)-3C-(X)-XX


V/V
(1C)-P-(1D)-3S
(X)-XX

[antonylee]

As a rule for my partnership undiscussed XXes (exceptions that had been discussed: e.g. after X of transfer over 1N, etc) of partscores are never to play if any escape is still possible. In 1) an escape is definitely possible, though it'd depend on how you play 2S. I'd assume XX=6340 or the like and too light for a normal 2S, but wanted to try and get out somewhere. 2) looks like to play to me...

[nigel_k]

My preferred agreement is that pass of a redouble above one of a suit is to play, i.e. a hand that would have passed the double. If you would not have passed the double (without the redouble), you have to bid something.

[Poky]

benlessard, on 2012-March-12, 22:05, said:

We had 2 XX cases tonight, what is your agreements here.
V/nv
(1H)-2C-(P)-2S
(P)-3C-(X)-XX
V/V
(1C)-P-(1D)-3S
(X)-XX

1. Pure SOS (although a very dangerous bid)
2. Penalty, inviting 4♠.

[aguahombre]

My general thoughts about redouble are that they are the ones screwing around, I am real.

Not sure if that clarifies in these situations, but that is what we have to work with.

(1)=my 2S bid was very good in terms of strength, tolerant of your club rebid.
(2)=does not exist. Not a Rosencranz situation.

[Codo]

Both XX are for business. Playing them as SOS is beyond me. Partner rebids his clubs without any sign of fit and I will tell him that he makes a mistake? Never.

[Phil]

Codo, on 2012-March-13, 04:55, said:

Both XX are for business. Playing them as SOS is beyond me. Partner rebids his clubs without any sign of fit and I will tell him that he makes a mistake? Never.

1. In the first example, the doubler probably had a penalty double of 2♣, and is now doubling 3♣! Furthermore (especially if 2♠ was forcing), the 3♣ bidder may have an awkward rebid. Redouble has to be, "lets play something else" and it has very little utility as business.

2. I have never seen this auction at the table, but I would agree this one is business. It makes little sense for responder to try to get to an alternative strain this way.

[benlessard]

My question about the 1st is checking if most play that 3D is 5/5 and xx is 64 (or vice versa). IMO to play that 3D show better D and XX show better spades also make sense. Because I think 55,65,56 are going to be way more likely than a 6340 (a hand that its not even clear if its best to XX with).

If you play 3D show better D and xx show better S(or vice versa) when 22 or 11 vs 65/55/56 you will get to the best contract however when 23/12 vs 64 you are going to play in 43/42 rather than 62/61.

If you play that XX is 64 and 3D is 55 (or vice versa) when overcaller is 22/11 and you are 65/55/56 you are going to be in the worse partscore 50% of the times. Of course sometimes both 52 fit will produce the same result and sometimes both S/D are equal. On this hand 3S in 52 fit was -2 while 3D in a 61 was making (and doubled at the other table )

For the 2nd hand is the XX inviting partner to bid 4S or more like a lead directing ? Ive XX hoping partner can doubled 4 something with a singleton and 2/3 trumps or extras defense. (IMO hes going to have a stiff very often and if this stiff is not trumps they are sure to go down and can easily go for -2/-3) Against 3NT it will force him to lead S wich is also a good thing.
hands like ...
Ajx
QJT9
Ax
xxx

xxx
AT9x
Ax
Kxxx


If they play 4D and partner can lead a stiff C or H on a good day we are going to make 3 ace and 2 ruff (and maybe the K of clubs).Of course there is some danger that 3S is going down (if they pass !) but its only -400 rather than -200 so its a fair gamble imo. The way ive learned it business XX invite partner to make a penalty X.