[Wackojack]

You play simple strong no trump 5 card majors. A 1♦ opening promises at least 4 cards and therefore a 1♣ opening bid could be on 2 cards when balanced with 4-4 in the majors. You play inverted minors but do not play Walsh or transfers in response to a 1♣ opening bid. 1m-1M-1NT = 12-14 balanced and then 2♣ would be check-back.

You are balanced with 4-4 in the minors. Which suit do you open with and most importantly why?

Thanks in advance

[billw55]

I open 1♦ because it is more descriptive as to length, and because it allows for a minimum club rebid later if appropriate.

[kenberg]

I open 1♦. I have a partner who opens 1♣. I live in the Wasgington D.C. area and I am pretty sure, although I have not looked it up, that Steve Robinson in Washington Standard says you can open either.

Now as to why:

Suppose I am 3=2=4=4 and I open 1♣. Lho overcalls 1♠ and partner makes a negative double. Rho passes. I do what? Maybe if my hand is AJx / Kx / Jxxx / AJxx I am comfortable rebidding 1NT, and maybe I would be comfortable (less so) bidding 1NT if lho overcalled a heart and partner made a negative double, but all in all I would rather have opened a diamond and then I rebid 2♣ most of the time when lho overcalls a major and partner doubles to show the other major.

Now my partner would argue that with his approach, if it goes 1♦-(1M)-X-Pass- 2♣ then opener is known to be 5-4. True enough. I still prefer my approach.

If you think that after 1♦-(1M)-X-Pass then 2♣ must show 5-4, then my argument does not apply. But then I think you may end up with some pretty iffy NT rebids. To each his own.

[jallerton]

After 1m-(1♠)-dbl-(P), I don't think that a 1NT rebid should show a spade stop. What else can you rebid with a 33(43) weak NT hand?

I also prefer to open 1♦ with 4-4 in the minors and a weak NT. Suppose that partner is also 4-4 in the minors and the next hand overcalls in a major. Partner might be nervous in raising what could be a 2-card suit, but he'll be happy to support when he knows we have an 8-card fit.

With 18-19 balanced different considerations apply and what you do really is a matter of agreement. Opposite a non-passed hand you might want to open the better suit. Opposite a passed hand, some players take the view that 3NT is the most likely resting spot and that they would rather open 1♣ because it gives away less information about (what they hope will be) declarer's hand.

[steve2005]

if your always rebidding some number of NT it doesn't really matter which you open. new minor forcing are still convenient after 1♣ opening. you can always open 1♣ or 1♦ as you prefer or you can open your better minor in case partner choses to raise it,

[FrancesHinden]

What Jallerton said: partner finds it easier to raise diamonds in competition, because I've promised at least 4.

With one partner we take this further and open 1D on a weak NT iff we are happy for partner to compete in diamonds, otherwise 1C.

[FrancesHinden]

kenberg, on 2014-June-27, 10:01, said:

I open 1♦. I have a partner who opens 1♣. I live in the Wasgington D.C. area and I am pretty sure, although I have not looked it up, that Steve Robinson in Washington Standard says you can open either.

Now as to why:

Suppose I am 3=2=4=4 and I open 1♣. Lho overcalls 1♠ and partner makes a negative double. Rho passes. I do what? Maybe if my hand is AJx / Kx / Jxxx / AJxx I am comfortable rebidding 1NT, and maybe I would be comfortable (less so) bidding 1NT if lho overcalled a heart and partner made a negative double, but all in all I would rather have opened a diamond and then I rebid 2♣ most of the time when lho overcalls a major and partner doubles to show the other major.

Now my partner would argue that with his approach, if it goes 1♦-(1M)-X-Pass- 2♣ then opener is known to be 5-4. True enough. I still prefer my approach.

If you think that after 1♦-(1M)-X-Pass then 2♣ must show 5-4, then my argument does not apply. But then I think you may end up with some pretty iffy NT rebids. To each his own.

I hate the idea of opening 1D with the intent of rebidding 2C (whether or not in competition). When you have a balanced hand, you should show a balanced hand as soon as possible. This obviously matters most on partscore deals (if you are going to play in 3NT it probably doesn't matter much what you bid) but I am not sure why you feel 'more comfortable' bidding 2C when, say, your hand is Kx AJx Jxxx AJxx and partner has, say, Qxx Kxxx Qxx Kxx. Or make partner slightly stronger, Axx Qxxx Axx Qxx so he has an invitational hand: if he knows you have at least 5 diamonds he can comfortably bid 3D but opposite your possibly 2344 he has to bid 2NT. That's a pretty silly contract opposite xx Kx KQxxx KJxx.

[kenberg]

With Kx AJx Jxxx AJxx will rebid 1NT after lho overcalls 1♠ and partner doubles. The corollary being that I don't mind opening this 1♣, although in fact I still go with 1♦. I find it more of a problem if I have no spades stop at all. I suppose partner might have one, or if my NT is followed be three passes and partner has no stop then the first five tricks won't set me.

I agree that if I am 4 triple 3 then I have to rebid 1NT after the overcall and the negative double, stopper or no stopper, but it seems to me that if I am 4-4 in the minors, with most of my values in the minors, opening 1♦ gives me some useful flexibility. Quite possibly we can compete to 3m against thier major holding, and starting with 1♦ seems a good beginning.

I'll think about it though.