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How do you handle in this hand?

#1 User is offline   lycier 

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Posted 2013-February-23, 01:59



Assume that the partner open 1,you respond to 1,it is a normal auction,however,with the opener rebid any bids including 1 ,1 or 1nt at 1-level,and then some problems will come to pass,now for this hand,how do you handle?
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#2 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2013-February-23, 02:14

I would just sign off in 2D however my methods allow for that, I have no aces so I'm not going to look for game with 9 points.
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#3 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2013-February-27, 13:10

 JLOGIC, on 2013-February-23, 02:14, said:

I would just sign off in 2D however my methods allow for that, I have no aces so I'm not going to look for game with 9 points.


If this is MP the chances of game are are anti% so reaching for game does indeed seem not worth the
effort and a 2d rebid seems called for though diamonds might still score worse than 1N.

At Imps there is still too much potential for game opposite a lot of minimums (mostly 5m)
and I would make an invitational bid (in either clubs or diamonds) by whatever means are available
in my partnership.
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#4 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-February-27, 13:30

Assuming 2 or 3 card club and bidding 1N rather than 1M with balanced, this is awkward, I'd like to bid 3 both because probably at least one of our 3m contracts probably makes and so quite often does one of their 2M contracts. Possibly depends what I'm showing by 3.

I never have this problem as my club shows 4.
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#5 User is offline   lexlogan 

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Posted 2013-February-27, 13:48

I'd generally rebid 2, planning to compete to 3 next. 3NT or five of a minor are possible, but seem fairly unlikely if partner cannot move over 2. If you have an agreement that a 1 or 1 rebid promises four clubs (i.e., opener must rebid 1NT on any 4333) then it is probably better to rebid 2 or 3. I'd settle for 2; I give little weight to distribution when bidding minors since the goal of 3NT generally requires high-card strength. 2 will give a better description of this hand when there is any subsequent bidding; the downside is that if there isn't, 2 is probably not a good spot.
Paul Hightower
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#6 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2013-February-27, 14:03

 lexlogan, on 2013-February-27, 13:48, said:

If you have an agreement that a 1 or 1 rebid promises four clubs (i.e., opener must rebid 1NT on any 4333) then it is probably better to rebid 2 or 3. I'd settle for 2;


It would be surprising if a natural 2 bid were available.
I know not with what weapons World War III will be fought, but World War IV will be fought with sticks and stones -- Albert Einstein
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#7 User is offline   lycier 

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Posted 2013-March-01, 05:04

It is a most difficult to describe a invitational hand with 6 card minor suiter in any bidding system, so I think there is a invitational values in the south's hand:
1-if you play two way stayman,rebid 2 relay to 2,and then bid 3 as game invitation.
2-if you don't play two way stayman,jump bid 3 for the invitation.
3-or rebid 2nt to invite game.

Do you agree with my proposals?
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#8 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2013-March-01, 05:51

 lycier, on 2013-February-23, 01:59, said:



Assume that the partner open 1,you respond to 1,it is a normal auction,however,with the opener rebid any bids including 1 ,1 or 1nt at 1-level,and then some problems will come to pass,now for this hand,how do you handle?



no problem..

sign off in 2d ...next

for me 2c forcing 2d
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#9 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-March-01, 06:19

 gszes, on 2013-February-27, 13:10, said:

At Imps there is still too much potential for game opposite a lot of minimums (mostly 5m)
and I would make an invitational bid (in either clubs or diamonds) by whatever means are available
in my partnership.


I think this is almost never the situation.

My experience is that, given the lack of a major-suit overcall by either opponent, partner is likely to have length and strength in the majors. In particular, partner is almost nailed on to have four spades here.
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