awm, on 2017-February-07, 19:30, said:
Playing normal 2/1 agreements (no negative free bids) several questions come to mind:
1. Should I have made a negative double at my first turn, even though this is supposed to show both minors?
Double is a poor choice, because there are 3 flaws:
You are weak and you are balanced.
Your distribution is not perfect
You are red.
However, I believe that if opener balances with 1NT after 2 passes this should show a weak notrump (not 18-19) with reaonable stoppers in overcallers suit.
This agreement relieves responder of finding a bid with an unsuitable distribution. He is almost never broke in this situation when advancer also passes.
It is rarely a good idea to pass out at the one level with a balanced hand and raesonable stoppers in overcallers suit.
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2. An immediate 3m jump would have been fit-showing. Presumably this means 3m now shows less than an invite with 6+ in the minor?
No, it shows a willingness to compete, not an invite. I do play negative free bids at the two level, but negative free bids, though limited and not forcing, show a good suit in a constructive hand. So this hand is unsuitable for a negative free bid in my opinion.
But even without this I rather bid immediately with an invitational hand.
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3. What are double and 2NT at my second turn? Both what would you assume, and how do you prefer to play are interesting. Would you bid one of them here at MP scoring?
Double shows a willingness to compete, with no clear preferences. DBL looks right to me. I pass with a trump stack.
2NT: minors.
Rainer Herrmann