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You have been selected for the Grand Jury!

#1 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 08:55

The Grand Court Martial of Bridge has gathered to trial and sentence the perpetrators of the following events, which took place at the local Cup match of yesterday.

The facts are as follows.

Imps, both vuln, intermediate opps, the Defendents were playing 2/1 in aggressive style and held:

9xxxx.....AKJ
xx..........KQx
AKQJT.....xxx
x............xxxx

Auction

LHO...Def1...RHO...Def2
pass..pass..pass...1
pass...1....pass...pass
dbl......2 (all pass)

Result: 11 tricks for a 10 imp loss.

The Grand Court Attourney General accuses the Defendents of the following crimes against Bridge:

1. Def1 has not opened his 6-loser, 14 distribution, 28 zar points, hand.

2. Def2 has failed to rebid 1NT his 2nd round, after which Def1 might have bid an invitational 55 with 3, or driven to game by himself.

3. Def2 missed the opportunity to redeem crime nr.1 by bidding a merely competitive 2.


The Defense Lawyers present the following arguments regarding the respective crimes:

1. Def1 did not want to opening because he held only 10 hcp and was weary pard would bid a game-forcing 2 after which he would have to make the most revolting rebid of 2.

2. Def2 thought game to be highly unlikely after Def1 passed 1st round, so he preferred to pass 1 instead of rebidding 1NT because 1 should be easier to make if Def1 held a bad 6-7 points.

3. Def1 reasoned Def2 to be below normal opening values, so he too thought game was unlikely and settled for a quiet 2.

The Defense rested their case.


In final alegations, and regarding crime 3, the Attourney General argued that a 4th-in-hand opening ought to show a solid opener, and that therefore passing 1 implied tolerance for spades (at least Hxx). That should have encouraged Def1 to make one final effort at game.


Both Defenders pleeded Innocent, claiming to be humble victims of the Great Shuffler.

The Grand Jury adjourned for a decision on the 3 crimes.

ARE THE DEFENDENTS GUILTY OR INNOCENT?

Quid Juris?.. as they say in courts ;)
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#2 User is offline   mr1303 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 09:05

Guilty as charged, m'lud

1) Def1 has a clear opening bid. If I'm forced to rebid 2S after 2H then so be it. YOu have 5 cashing tricks in any contract that you're declaring or dummying.

2) Def2 has a clear 2S response to 1S. NOT 1NT NO NO NO NO NO NEVER 1NT!!!!

3) Def1 should rebid like he holds an opening bid, not an 8 count.

4) What kind of hand would open in 4th seat that wouldn't have some kind of play for game opposite Def1's hand.

5) I'd deal 'em both Yarborough's for as long as it takes for them to repent their sins.
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#3 User is offline   luis 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 09:14

I'd like to join the prosecution.

1. Def1 did not want to opening because he held only 10 hcp and was weary pard would bid a game-forcing 2♥ after which he would have to make the most revolting rebid of 2♠.

I'd argue that he has to open 1 (!) and not 1, over 1 he has the most confortable 1 rebid and then 2 describing his hand perfectly. Not opening this hand is quite an extravaganza and seriously contradicts the argument that they were playing an agressive style. Either you are or you are not but you can't switch in the middle.

2. Def2 thought game to be highly unlikely after Def1 passed 1st round, so he preferred to pass 1♠ instead of rebidding 1NT because 1♠ should be easier to make if Def1 held a bad 6-7 points.

I agree.

3. Def1 reasoned Def2 to be below normal opening values, so he too thought game was unlikely and settled for a quiet 2♠

Def 1 is clearly nuts, not only he didn't open but now he imagines pd opening a club without a serious opening and he is bidding 1 on the 2 fifth and never bid diamonds with AKQJx. I wonder how a player that never bid AKQJx of diamonds pretend to escape from this?

I found Def1 Guilty of
- Switching the system style in the middle of the match
- Not bidding diamonds with AKQJx
- Playing aggressive not opening a hand that many non-agressive players would have opened.
- Rebidding 2 which may be the worst horrible rebid in the history of bridge
- Not opening because he didn't want to rebid 2 and then rebidding 2
- Not noticing what a 1 opening bid looks like.
- Trying to defend the undefendable.

Def 1 should go to jail for some months.
Def 2 can be free after a severe warning from the court.

Luis
The legend of the black octogon.
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#4 User is offline   Chamaco 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 09:16

whereagles, on Apr 20 2005, 02:55 PM, said:

ARE THE DEFENDENTS GUILTY OR INNOCENT?

Quid Juris?.. as they say in courts ;)

Both Guilty and the penalty consists of having to play together again ! ;-)


-------------------------------------------------------
1) Def 1 has an opener. I would value his bad spades 5 bagger as just a 4 bagger, and open 1D. Opening 1D allows for a 1S rebid if responde bids hearts.

2) I think it is acceptable to pass this hand as 4th seat; but IF you decide to open, then you should rebid. In this case I would rebid 2S, with concentrated value in 2 suits this is not a 1NT rebid.

3) Def 1 should have rebid 2 diamonds after opps balancing double, showing long spades and diamond values, and an invitational hand (can't be a GF anymore after 1st pass);
"Bridge is like dance: technique's important but what really matters is not to step on partner's feet !"
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#5 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 09:20

1. Playing "normal" 2/1 game force Def1 should pass.

In an ideal world, you have some kind of gimmick 2 level opening to use for such hands. Alternatively, you can gussy up 2/1 which will allow you to open lighter. However, if your playing vanilla 2/1 GF you don't have enough strength to open

2. Opener should make some kind of rebid. The 4333 shape and Heart stoppers recommends 1NT. 2 is OK as well.

3. The 2 rebid is an abomination...
Alderaan delenda est
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#6 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 09:35

I agree with the pass as 2nd position. To open 1 (if pd responds 1NT) or 1 (if pd responds 2) would have awful rebid. A while ago on this forum, Fred mentioned (and a lot agreed) that with a marginal hand, to pass and come back later is a good idea if there is a rebid problem.

I would blame East 90% (if not 100%) for failing to rebid 1NT (or 2S) with a full opening hand and AKJ support). After double, I might redouble as West. East, holding AKJ of , after pd's 2, 3 is almost an automatic action.
Senshu
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#7 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 09:42

""Aggressive" ??

Do you mean they are always at each others throat during postmortem?
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#8 User is offline   Chamaco 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 09:45

HeartA, on Apr 20 2005, 03:35 PM, said:

I agree with the pass as 2nd position. To open 1 (if pd responds 1NT) or 1 (if pd responds 2) would have awful rebid.

I do not think opening 1D has great rebid problems (1S would indeed create problems):

1D:1H:1S
1D:1NT:pass (even with a hand suit oriented, I pass because I have 5 likely tricks in NT)
1D:2C(the most criticalbid):2D= I have not any problem in rebidding my great diamond suit, even if only a 5-bagger
"Bridge is like dance: technique's important but what really matters is not to step on partner's feet !"
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#9 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 09:51

1) I would pass as well in 2nd seat, especially,
if playing 2/1 GF, this hand is not an opener
playing 2/1 GF
2) Pass by opener is reasonable, it may not be
best tactical bid, but I think it is fine
3) 2D instead of 2S looks better, although
i doubt, that this would lead to a game
contract
For what's it worth: Responder knows about the
spade fit, because opener will never pass with
a doubleton, so could bid 3S or 4S, but i am not
sure he should, because the singleton in openers
suit, is a sign for downgrading

In other words not guilty, and the other jurors will have
a hard time convincing me to change my verdict,
rember the film "12. Juror" ?
If they try, they will need lots of spare time ... B)

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#10 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 10:45

I'm going to go a little easy on the 1st pass. Although its a ZAR and a rule of 20 opener, the hand resembles a preempt. 1D is possible, but it has nothing to do with the actual result. The 13 count has an automatic 3N response.
I'd probably open it however.

I can't fault the pass of 1S either.

It was the opps that gave this pair a last minute reprieve. Over the balance, 2S is just plain lazy and a capital crime in some countries. An agressive move is warranted - I like 3D but a rdbl Is ok.
"Phil" on BBO
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#11 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 10:50

pclayton, on Apr 20 2005, 11:45 AM, said:

I'm going to go a little easy on the 1st pass. Although its a ZAR and a rule of 20 opener, the hand resembles a preempt. 1D is possible, but it has nothing to do with the actual result. The 13 count has an automatic 3N response.
I'd probably open it however.

I can't fault the pass of 1S either.

It was the opps that gave this pair a last minute reprieve. Over the balance, 2S is just plain lazy and a capital crime in some countries. An agressive move is warranted - I like 3D but a rdbl Is ok.

3 would be a good bid as well.
Senshu
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#12 User is offline   olegru 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 12:37

I agree with first pass of W.
Not because it is only 10 PC, but because I do not have a good opening bid+rebid.
I can't open 1 - because it deny 5-cards major.
I can't open 1 - because after very possable 2 reply from the partner I'll be forsed to bid suicidal 2.

I am not happy with pass of E, but I can't blame him for it. It is acceptable bid.

2 from W on third round -ridiculous. Redbl, 3, 2 even pass, even 3NT (in IMPs) is much better.
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#13 User is offline   PriorKnowledge 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 13:46

Def1 guilty, Def2 forgiven
1) 100% a 1S opener. The advocates of 1D are joking, right? You'd bid a 5-card minor before your 5-card major? Most experts open their 5-card major before their 6-card minor. Open 1S and if partner bids 2H, rebid 2S. What is the problem? That is not going to be the final contract. Grow up.

2) I can forgive the pass. A 4333 13 count with only 3 spades. A 1N rebid would have saved Def1. A 2S rebid deserves to find responder with 8HCP and 4 spades, going down when 1N is cold. That will lose you 5/6 IMPS

3) 2S is terrible. Now is the time for a natural 3D. Give partner a 2nd chance.
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#14 User is offline   Gerardo 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 13:49

Didn't open 1 to avoid rebidding 2 over a possible 2, and then bids 1 and rebids 2 B) Guilty!

#15 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 15:36

The pass of 1S showed 3 spades (and is correct imo), so Defender 1's rebidding spades is normal.

I think the problem is that they agreed to play an "aggressive style" but then didn't open what most of us consider an opening hand. No wonder partner thought game was unlikely.

Also, when the 2nd defender showed spade support, the 1st defender should make a game-try imo.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#16 User is offline   keylime 

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  Posted 2005-April-20, 16:40

Failing to open is a crime. It's that simple.
"Champions aren't made in gyms, champions are made from something they have deep inside them - a desire, a dream, a vision. They have to have last-minute stamina, they have to be a little faster, they have to have the skill and the will. But the will must be stronger than the skill. " - M. Ali
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#17 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 16:54

The clearest error here is responder's failure to bid diamonds at second turn. I think 3 is the best call.

The other two potential mistakes depend a lot on style. Opening Def1's hand has a lot of advantages and disadvantages. The main problem is, do you open 1 or 1? If you open spades, you will get the wrong lead from partner, may end up playing a 5-2 spade fit, and may have difficulty introducing the diamonds at all if partner responds in hearts. If you open diamonds, you may have difficulty introducing the spades if partner responds in notrump or in a minor. On the actual hand, the auction could well go 1-3NT. In fact my personal preference is NOT to open Def1's hand, but playing a self-described "aggressive style" I think it is mandatory to open because partner will not cater to a hand like this if you pass.

As for Def2 passing, I would bid 2 with this hand. However, the "aggressive style" argument applies here too. If you can assume partner would've opened pretty much any 7-loser hand with five card spades, then you're not going to miss a game here and 1 is surely a better partial than 1NT (yuck). So I think Def2's actions were reasonable under the assumption that partner would open aggressively.

With my 2/1 and standard partners, I play a more conservative opening style and would pass Def1's hand and bid 2 over 1 with Def2's. But this is apparently not the style used by this pair...

So I would find Def1 guilty on this one. Def2 gets off with a warning to discuss with future partners exactly what merits an opening bid.
Adam W. Meyerson
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#18 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2005-April-20, 17:09

whereagles, on Apr 20 2005, 08:55 AM, said:

Imps, both vuln, intermediate opps, the Defendents were playing 2/1 in aggressive style and held:

9xxxx.....AKJ
xx..........KQx
AKQJT.....xxx
x............xxxx

Auction

LHO...Def1...RHO...Def2
pass..pass..pass...1
pass...1....pass...pass
dbl......2 (all pass)

as much as i'd like to say i'd open the west hand, the fact is i might not.. so i can't fault the pass... neither can i find fault with east's pass of 1s.. he has a klinger type A t/o double (12-15), his partner is a passed hand, his partner bid 1 (not 2) spades

i think west is at fault for bidding 1s over the x and not something stronger (per system agreements) and for bidding 2s instead of 2d, after the reprieve
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#19 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2005-April-21, 00:50

As an after thought:

Would we discuss the whole problem, if openers hand
would look slightly different?

We could simply switch openers spade holding to
xxx and give him AKJxx in clubs, now, opponents
have 4 cashing top tricks.

If you believe, that opener should accept the invitation with

AKJ
KQx
xxx
xxxx

he should surely do this with

xxx
KQx
xxx
AKJx

as well, after all responder knows, that opener holds
Club values.

If we change openers hand to

Kxx
KQx
xxx
KJxx

even 3S is not cold anymore, and opener may or may not
accept the inviation.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#20 User is offline   hotShot 

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Posted 2005-April-21, 01:33

If you play an agressive style, Def1 will have to open this 6 looser hand.
A lot of opening hands with more HCP have more loosers too. It even satisfys the rule of 20!
There is nothing wrong with the 1 opening of Def2. And why should Def2 bid over 1 that shows a 4 card suit, after partners opening pass. and rising to 2 with combined 7 cards and silent opps is not neccessary.

Ok now your helpful opps reopen the bidding for you, why on earth Def1 did you not bid 2/3? This should make clear that you hold 5. There is no excuse for that, you know your own strength and know that partner opend. 2 could be a 6HCP 0 distributional points hand. This is no agressive style, this is even beyond "rock solid" style.

If you don't want to bid 1, 2 than open 1. There is nothing wrong with opening 1m to avoid rebid problems, if you hold 5's too.

Def1 is guity of violating the agreed system by not opening, misdescribing his hand and even rejecting help from opps.
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