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Blame game Is it passable or impassable

#1 User is offline   pilowsky 

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Posted 2021-March-14, 22:35

It's possible that the worlds best card player is John Hush.
After all, he did prove that 1=2 (https://bit.ly/3ti1yaH).
And he can find a missing card in the deck using algebra (http://bit.ly/HushCard).
But can he answer a Bridge question or does only the King know? http://bit.ly/TheKingKnows

Playing 2/1:
A new hand appears. I have 17 HCP and 7 losers. Just as I'm deciding whether or not to open 1 or 1NT, My partner opens 1. It's an IMP's tourney with some pretty aggressive opponents and South - not wanting to feel left out, overcalls 1.
I decide on 2.
Pass, Pass, Pass.
-6 IMP's.
Top boards were (an impossible) 6NT for +11 IMP's.
Afterwards, we had a bit of a discussion about who should have done what.
I thought I should have simply bid 3NT.
My partner thought she shouldn't pass a change of suit.
She's a much better player than me, but still, we thought we would get a second opinion.

Here's the deal


The possible contracts

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#2 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2021-March-14, 23:18

It's completely normal to bid 2H.

It's completely abnormal to pass 2H as opener. 2H is forcing and unlimited; opener can't pass as frequently you will have game and sometimes slam. Opener should just bid 2nt which you'll raise to 3, not quite having enough for a quantitative invite to 4.

The only exception is if you have a partnership agreement to use a treatment known as "negative free bids", in which 2H is a non-forcing call, and East has to double first to set up a force. This is a relatively rare treatment in most places I think, although there are some countries (Poland?) where it is the standard treatment.
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#3 User is offline   pilowsky 

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Posted 2021-March-15, 01:52

View PostStephen Tu, on 2021-March-14, 23:18, said:

It's completely normal to bid 2H.

It's completely abnormal to pass 2H as opener. 2H is forcing and unlimited; opener can't pass as frequently you will have game and sometimes slam. Opener should just bid 2nt which you'll raise to 3, not quite having enough for a quantitative invite to 4.

The only exception is if you have a partnership agreement to use a treatment known as "negative free bids", in which 2H is a non-forcing call, and East has to double first to set up a force. This is a relatively rare treatment in most places I think, although there are some countries (Poland?) where it is the standard treatment.


Thanks - not Polish - for at least 2 generations!
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#4 User is offline   thepossum 

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Posted 2021-March-15, 02:37

I can't comment on the Bridge but I think questions need to be asked about the "world's best maths teacher"

You never actually see if his students get a chance to call out the BS
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#5 User is offline   DavidKok 

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Posted 2021-March-15, 03:50

As Stephen has pointed out the 2 call is automatic unless you have agreed to play negative free bids, and partner's pass is absurd. If not for the fact that you mentioned that your partner is a much better player I would think she regretted opening on a boring 12 with a potential misfit, and tried to undo her first round of bidding.
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#6 User is offline   pescetom 

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Posted 2021-March-15, 13:53

View PostStephen Tu, on 2021-March-14, 23:18, said:

The only exception is if you have a partnership agreement to use a treatment known as "negative free bids", in which 2H is a non-forcing call, and East has to double first to set up a force. This is a relatively rare treatment in most places I think, although there are some countries (Poland?) where it is the standard treatment.

As I understand, this was fairly standard in much of Europe at it's peak, and is still quite common among older pairs in Italy (France stamped it out with SEF). It's a recipe for disaster to partner with people who played this for decades, even if they claim to have given it up.
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#7 User is offline   AL78 

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Posted 2021-March-15, 14:10

With one of my former bridge partners, we played disturbed bids as weak, so would have to double or jump bid with strength. Unless you were playing that, West should have fouond another bid. It is standard for a change of suit to be forcing even after intervention, so West has no reason to decide East's hand is so weak that 2 is the best contract. 2NT seems the clear bid.
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#8 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2021-March-15, 16:54

I haven't run it through a double dummy solver, but I suspect 6N(w) is likely to make, I suspect on any defence except repeated club leads there is a (very lucky) double squeeze that operates, and N probably leads a spade.

But yes, what everybody else said, at MPs passing 2 hoping for an 11 count is a not totally insane gamble, but you can't do that at IMPs.
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#9 User is offline   pilowsky 

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Posted 2021-March-15, 18:08

View PostCyberyeti, on 2021-March-15, 16:54, said:

I haven't run it through a double dummy solver, but I suspect 6N(w) is likely to make, I suspect on any defence except repeated club leads there is a (very lucky) double squeeze that operates, and N probably leads a spade.

But yes, what everybody else said, at MPs passing 2 hoping for an 11 count is a not totally insane gamble, but you can't do that at IMPs.


Thanks for that. The Double-dummy is provided in the spoiler.
It only makes 5NT - if defended properly.
It was played in a club so the defence was a bit patchy.
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#10 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2021-March-15, 18:27

View Postpilowsky, on 2021-March-15, 18:08, said:

Thanks for that. The Double-dummy is provided in the spoiler.
It only makes 5NT - if defended properly.
It was played in a club so the defence was a bit patchy.


Yes, it assumes a club lead and suggests you make 11 if you get one, but say N leads a top spade, you reach this position with EW needing the rest (or maybe the same having played an extra round of clubs won by the K depending on what they return when they win their heart trick):



Now the last heart forces S to discard a club or you make 4 diamonds, you pitch a diamond and cash K if you haven't already and 3 diamonds finishing in the E hand, you have a low spade, and a low club, dummy has Ax, S has a diamond and a club and north has 2 of a winning spade and 2 clubs and a discard he can't make.
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#11 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2021-March-15, 20:44

View Postpilowsky, on 2021-March-14, 22:35, said:

Afterwards, we had a bit of a discussion about who should have done what.
I thought I should have simply bid 3NT.
My partner thought she shouldn't pass a change of suit.

If you play forcing freebids, obviously you should bid 2 and she should rebid 2NT.

If you play negative freebids, your options with strong hands with hearts are dbl and 3. I think 3 should show a 6-card suit, so dbl it is. Playing this style, dbl followed by a new suit is stronger than a direct 2 (and therefore forcing), while the standard treatment, playing forcing freebids, is the opposite: first double and then 2 (if opener rebids 1NT or 2) would be weak.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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