[chris2016]

How do you continue bidding after the following sequence:
1NT pass 2C 2D 2C being landy

Do you bid 2H/2S based on diamond stopper or do you bid the major you don’t have to anticipate
3D overcall?

Thanks

[ahydra]

I don't think 2C response to 1N is Landy. If you meant 2C is stayman, I would just bid naturally (and pass with no M). Keep it simple.

ahydra

[pescetom]

Welcome to the forum chris.
Do you mean this?

---

If not, please copy this diagram and edit it as necessary.
You can create a diagram like this from scratch by pressing the rightmost icon in the Post window, which looks like a Spades card.
You have to put the question mark in yourself and scale up the two dimensions a little (but only a little).

[Cyberyeti]

Also normlly a good idea to mention whether it's a weak or strong NT.

[fromageGB]

In a situation like this where presumably you have half the pack or so in terms of high card points, never distort your bidding violently just in case the other opponent bids. It completely misleads partner, who will then inevitably take the wrong decision and give you a bad result. Just bid whatever your normal agreement says you should bid. If this takes the bidding higher than if opponents had passed, then other factors come into play, and passing might be right.

Here, if your partner is showing both majors 4+4+xx then bid a 4 card major yourself, as 2♦ does not interfere. If your reply would have been 2♦ as a major denial, then pass is correct, or double for penalty if you have diamonds AND partner has shown strength so that you know you have, combined, considerably more than they do.

[Zelandakh]

Assuming you mean the auction Tom posted, there are 2 popular schemes (and several other alternatives):-

#1
==
P = no 4 card major without 4+ good ♦s
X = optional penalty, 4+ good ♦s
2M = 4+ cards

--
#2
==
P = diamond values, F1R (X = re-ask)
X = no ♦ stop, no 4 card major
2M = no ♦ stop, 4+ cards

Unlike fromage, I do not believe that we have shown half the deck here. In fact, playing a weak (12-14) NT we might only have 11 points between us, if Responder has, for example, a 4=4=5=0 pointless hand and Opener has upgraded a good 11. I think any scheme that assumes it is our hand is going to be very dangerous!

[chris2016]

Thanks all for your advices

1NT is 15-17

I play a convention south answers normally if he got ♦ stopper, if no ♦ stopper south pass
waiting for north double, then south named the major he doesn't have to make east to lead.

Problem arises when west advence to 3♦.

---

How do you continue?

[nige1]

chris2016 'I play a convention south answers normally if he got ♦ stopper, if no ♦ stopper south pass waiting for north double, then south named the major he doesn't have to make east to lead. How do you continue?'
++++++++++++++
Over East's 2♦ , you double with no ♦ stop and no 4 card major? And pass with a ♦ stop and a 4 card major. That seems brave. Also, if you pass, then partner bids the major he doesn't have? So, even if you are lucky enough to find a fit, you sometimes have to play at the 3-level? When you pass, and West bids 3♦, partner's options are pass, double and 3M. It's hard to decide how best to allocate meanings to those calls. It's good to have agreements, however, even if they're not perfectly optimal.

---

[Zelandakh]

chris2016, on 2020-January-16, 06:12, said:

Thanks all for your advices

1NT is 15-17

I play a convention south answers normally if he got ♦ stopper, if no ♦ stopper south pass
waiting for north double, then south named the major he doesn't have to make east to lead.

Problem arises when west advence to 3♦.

This is why you bid without a stop and pass with one rather than the other way round. It makes the raise less likely and improves our chances of setting them when they do.