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2 diamonds or 1NT what camp are you in

#1 User is offline   sceptic 

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Posted 2005-October-01, 12:03


Scoring: IMP


West North East South

 -     1    Pass  1
 Pass  1    Pass  1
 Pass  2    Pass  Pass
 Pass  


comments on this bidding and your way of bidding it please
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#2 User is offline   rona_ 

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Posted 2005-October-01, 12:16

I would respond a spade to North's one club. With a hand that I can bid twice, then diamonds first. Wait for the experts to comment though... <_<
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#3 User is online   mikeh 

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Posted 2005-October-01, 12:22

You did better than I would have done <_<

I would never respond 1 on a hand worth only one bid: but I am a firm believer that up-the-line bidding is a poor approach... this is one of (many) philosophical issues that divide the bridge community (opening 1 or 1 with 4-4 in the minors, what to open with 4=5 in the minors, frequency of offshape notrumps etc)

For me, this is a 1 response, which would fetch 2 from most of my partners and 1N from one (I vote for 2). 2 ends the auction. However, if partner bid 1N, I would bid 2 to puppet to 2, and play there.
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#4 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2005-October-01, 12:40

Bidding was precise, correct and elegant.
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#5 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2005-October-01, 12:44

Same way I would bid it. I'm one of the few left that responds 1D still <_< lol.
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#6 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2005-October-01, 13:38

sceptic, on Oct 1 2005, 01:03 PM, said:


<!-- FULLHAND begin --><table border=1> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td>Dealer:</td> <td> North </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Vul:</td> <td> None </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Scoring:</td> <td> IMP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> </th> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> 4 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> QJT3 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> KJ4 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> AQ432 </td> </tr> </table> </th> <th> </th> </tr> <tr> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> AQ76 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> K98 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> 72 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> KJ96 </td> </tr> </table> </th> <th> </th> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> JT52 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> A6542 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> A93 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> 8 </td> </tr> </table> </th> </tr> <tr> <th> </th> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> K983 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> 7 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> QT865 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> T75 </td> </tr> </table> </th> <th> </th> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- FULLHAND end -->

West  North East  South

 -     1    Pass  1
 Pass  1    Pass  1
 Pass  2    Pass  Pass
 Pass  


comments on this bidding and your way of bidding it please


To say this bidding is correct or precise seems to really miss the boat. <_<.
1) I would overcall 1H as east but can live with x by east.

2) Now as south I would pass.
3) Now cuebid 2clubs as west. Will let those that play fit jumps explain what the correct bid with west is here.
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#7 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2005-October-01, 17:30

mikeh, on Oct 1 2005, 08:22 PM, said:

I would never respond 1 on a hand worth only one bid: but I am a firm believer that up-the-line bidding is a poor approach... this is one of (many) philosophical issues that divide the bridge community (opening 1 or 1 with 4-4 in the minors, what to open with 4=5 in the minors, frequency of offshape notrumps etc)

I play Walsh style most of the time, but up the line in one partnership. While I am still more used to Walsh, I think up the line has a lot of appeal, and this beautiful auction is a good example :)

Wayne, about your question: I think 2 is clear with this hand -- unless you play that it promises extras, in which case you might be 2 the first time.

As an aside, Walsh runs clearly contrary to the general principle of bidding theory that the lowest bid should be the most frequent.

Arend
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#8 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2005-October-01, 23:24

I agree with Arend when it comes to Walsh. Purely from a constructive viewpoint it can't be right to bypass diamonds when they are longer. However, getting your major in quickly will often work out better when the opponents compete. And 1C-1S might make it harder for them to find their heart fit.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#9 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 01:04

Quote

Same way I would bid it. I'm one of the few left that responds 1D still  lol.


You're not alone here. Me too.
On a hand worth just 1 bid, bidding the longest suit you have can't be horrible...

At IMPs important to play the safe part score, i.e. 2 not 1NT.

If you want to play Walsh, play TRANSFER Walsh.

1 - 1 ()
1NT - 2
Pass
Two wrongs don't make a right, but three lefts do!
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#10 User is offline   sceptic 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 02:02

the nice thing here is both me and my p seem to like up the line bidding, I am sure that with 4D and 4S he would have bid the spades first,

my 2 diamond bid, does it show 1435 or 0445 or 1444 as possible distributions

I do not play it as showing extra values, just showing dist

also I would have bid 1 spade even though somehere, have said it is a one bid hand, was it worng to do so and if so why ?
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#11 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 02:23

It's a one bid hand in the sense that you would pass 1NT, 2 and most non-forcing rebids by opener. Clearly it is right to continue with 1 on this auction though.

I would not be too prescriptive about the meaning of 2 although hands with 4-card support would often raise given your style.

Paul
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I don't work for BBO and any advice is based on my BBO experience over the decades
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#12 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 03:59

Gerben42, on Oct 2 2005, 08:04 AM, said:

Quote

Same way I would bid it. I'm one of the few left that responds 1D still  lol.


You're not alone here. Me too.
On a hand worth just 1 bid, bidding the longest suit you have can't be horrible...

At IMPs important to play the safe part score, i.e. 2 not 1NT.

If you want to play Walsh, play TRANSFER Walsh.

1 - 1 ()
1NT - 2
Pass

If pard will rebid 1NT bypassing a 4 card spade suit, then IMO it is much better to respond 1S than 1D playing Better Minor. Pard will rarely have 4 diamonds so won't be able to put in a raise, and if he does you will just goad your opponents into finding their 9 card heart fit.

Agree on the Transfer Walsh thing, except I wouldn't treat opener's hand as balanced, if I was to treat it as balanced I'd rebid 1 showing 11-13 bal, and if I then wanted to sign off in diamonds I'd have bid 2 puppet to 2 :)
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#13 User is offline   david_c 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 05:13

MickyB, on Oct 2 2005, 10:59 AM, said:

Agree on the Transfer Walsh thing, except I wouldn't treat opener's hand as balanced, if I was to treat it as balanced I'd rebid 1 showing 11-13 bal, and if I then wanted to sign off in diamonds I'd have bid 2 puppet to 2  :)

Hey Mike, does this mean you've found a partner who plays this thing? :)

It depends what style of T-Walsh you're playing - if completing the transfer shows 3-card support then rebidding 1NT on this hand is fine. But if you're forced to complete the transfer with any minimum balanced hand (so that 1NT = 17-20) then I'd agree you're better off rebidding clubs, because partner would pass after 1:1,1 with a lot of fairly poor spade suits.

1=4=3=5 hands are killers. I'd almost convinced myself that they were so rare that they weren't worth worrying about - but then someone goes and posts one to BBF! :D In the system I'm thinking about at the moment I have to open 1, and rebid 1NT over 1. But then responder has two ways to take out into 2:

2 = transfer to spades, but please break the transfer with a singleton.
2 = I want to play here even opposite a singleton.
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#14 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 16:08

Yup, will be playing it for the uni team this year :)

Nice point on that sequence being passed.

Not sure I like the two ways of pulling to 2 - if you felt the need to improve the original contract of 1NT, 2NT probably won't be great! ATM I either have the 1NT rebid usually show 1-2 card or 2-3 card support, but how about this?

1C = nat or bal
2D, 2H, 2S responses show 5 cards with 4 card club support, non-forcing
1C:1S, 1N:2D/2H = 5S4D/H
1C:1S, 1N:2S = 6 cards
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#15 User is offline   david_c 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 16:12

MickyB, on Oct 2 2005, 11:08 PM, said:

Not sure I like the two ways of pulling to 2 - if you felt the need to improve the original contract of 1NT, 2NT probably won't be great!

Ah, but the break implies a 5-card club suit, and you can play in 3. Or indeed 3 occasionally - opener must have at least three of those too.
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#16 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 16:19

This is my auction.

1 - 1
1NT - 2
2 - Pass

1c and 1s (walsh) are automatic.
1NT = what else?
2C = xyz forces partenr to bid 2
2D = as requested.
--Ben--

#17 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 22:09

I like up-the-line bidding, and I like your auction. Good job getting to the right contract.

Obviously one can construct other auctions to 2 using other methods, but I find this up-the-line sequence particularly convincing. After 1-1-1NT, if partner would almost always raise spades on three you're in good shape to reach 2. But I'm well aware that a lot of people who play walsh don't frequently rebid 1NT on the given hand. I think many people would end up in 2 (a slightly inferior spot) when opener rebids 2. Note that 2 would also be the final contract if responder's distribution was 4-3-5-1...
Adam W. Meyerson
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#18 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2005-October-02, 23:25

Maybe I am weird....no, there's no doubt there so scratch that....due to my oddities, I have convinced myself that the value of Walsh is the inherent natural meaning of virtually every bid. I see Walsh style as more like reverse Canape, where the second suit if a minor is not only longer but shows weakness. In a pure Walsh method, there is very little use for 4th suit forcing, an atrocity I very much like doing without. So with this hand, the bidding could also progress in these two ways: 1C-1S-1N-2D-P or 1C-1S-2C-P/2D. Both show weak hands, the second strongly suggestive of 6 diamonds.

The trade off comes in that 2C is used in all 1 over 1 over 1 auctions as the only way to create a forcing sequence; hence, you never get to play 2C with clubs and a weak hand as responder.

Another benefit to me is that 1C-1D-1H-2H becomes a game force, so 3H and 4H can all be assigned precise meanings or picture bids.

I know on this hand we would have played 2C on 1C-1S-2C-P. What the heck, I understand that in some versions of either Roman or Blue Club the Italian Blue Team used to have to bid 1S-2S on a 5 bagger due to Canape' and they did all right. You just pick the trade off that works for your style is all.

Winston
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#19 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2005-October-03, 04:35

Hi,

your bidding is fine, especially if you bid spades
instead of diamonds, when you hold 4-4, I dont,
but this is a common treatment, even when one
doesnt play walsh.

Because if you do, you have a 8 card fit in diamond,
ruffing values, and playing IMP's, you are looking
for the safest part score.

Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#20 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2005-October-03, 07:59

Winstonm, on Oct 3 2005, 12:25 AM, said:

In a pure Walsh method, there is very little use for 4th suit forcing

I'm not sure I agree with this. Say the auction starts

1C 1H
1S ?

If responder has a hand that is

A ) balanced GF with no diamond stopper
B ) balanced with 5 hearts and needs to check back for 3 card support
C ) forcing with club support
D ) forcing red 2 suiter
E ) forcing 1 suiter with hearts

he would like to make a 4th suit forcing bid.

You may tell me that you play forcing jumps over 1S so 3C/3D/3H resolves C/D/E but then you lose all your invitational auctions for the minor gain of being able to bid 2D NF. And I have no idea how you'd resolve A and B.
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