[jillybean]

Scoring: IMP

1♠ ?

---

Pickup partner in an indy

How should I bid it? 2♦ then 3♣, 2nt?

We missed an easy 5♦

[Walddk]

There is no scientific way of finding out whether we have a slam on or not, so my choice would be 4NT for the minors. I will pass 5♣ and 5♦. On a very bad day partner goes down in 5mi, but we can't stay lower than that with this hand.

Yes, we may miss a slam when partner has ♣K or ♠A, but I don't think we can get there without punting.

Roland

[cherdano]

You have a huge hand, so you should make huge bids. I would bid 4NT as Roland. Starting with 2♦ is also an option, in particular if you would not be sure that partner takes 4NT as for the minors (he should). But then you have to bid 5♣ next round. Imagine a typical hand that bids 2♦ then 3♣: probably 5-5, with 12-15 hcp. No way partner will expect this monster you have.

Arend

[jillybean]

Thanks, here is the full hand - I need to be thinking game (and the right one)

Scoring: IMP

---

West North East South

 -     -     1♠    2NT
 4♠    Pass  Pass  5♣
 Dbl   Pass  Pass  Pass
 

[Walddk]

You are in the wrong game. 5♣ is down on a diamond lead. If you start by bidding 2NT, you must follow up with 4NT in order to give partner the option of bidding his longer minor. 5♣ now should show 5-6 in the minors.

When you don't have a preference (equal length), let partner decide.

Roland

[TheoKole]

You have a monster hand making a laydown 6 ♦ or 6 ♣ with 3 clubs to the K in partners hand.

With my regular partner, we play Unusual NT with any point range of 8+, I would bid 2NT, then cue bid Spades to show a monster hand, then cue bid the other minor, then if I have room cue bid Hearts.

Nobody would stop me from reaching 5 of a minor at least.

If the action goes, (1♠) -> 2NT -> (4♠) -> P -> (P)
I would bid 5 ♣ which my partner can pass or correct to ♦.

Cheers,

Theo

[helene_t]

2NT is fine but over 4♠, bid 4NT and partner will prefer diamonds.

5♣ shows that clubs are longer than diamonds so it's understandable that partner passes.

[Walddk]

TheoKole, on Oct 17 2005, 12:24 PM, said:

If the action goes, (1♠) -> 2NT -> (4♠) -> P -> (P)
I would bid 5 ♣ which my partner can pass or correct to ♦.

Cheers,

Theo

5♣ must be wrong. Read my post above.

Another good reason for a direct 4NT is that you don't want to hear any number of majors from LHO. They may have a profitable save in one of them. 4NT obviously gives him less room to manouevre.

Roland

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

2D is fine, but then bid 5C, this shows 6-5
at least, and will get you to 6 some of the
time.

This strategy will work espescially playing
with an unknown partner, because nobody
knows 4 NT gets interpreted.

The only risk is, that 2D gets passed out,
but then, there is no risk free bid, if you
play with an unknown partner.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[luke warm]

while it's true that 2nt then 4nt is better, this was a pickup in an indy, so who knows what would happen... on the actual bidding i can't understand north's pass of 5C... i'd correct to 5D

[han]

Some people havce discussed the meaning of 4S here as being stronger than 4NT. This is the same over a weak 2 btw.

[barmar]

Walddk, on Oct 17 2005, 06:25 AM, said:

Another good reason for a direct 4NT is that you don't want to hear any number of majors from LHO. They may have a profitable save in one of them. 4NT obviously gives him less room to manouevre.

In this case, it's even worse -- 5♠ makes. Saves don't get much more profitable than that!

[Gerben42]

In an Indy there might be some partners who think 4NT is blackwood or who knows what. I would bid 2NT as you did and then bid 4NT, forcing partner to choose.

We will never know if we missed 6 but there's no science here...

[jillybean]

Gerben42, on Oct 17 2005, 08:02 AM, said:

In an Indy there might be some partners who think 4NT is blackwood or who knows what.

I'm one of those thinks 4nt is always asking for aces... but trying to change that

[Trpltrbl]

Walddk, on Oct 17 2005, 05:22 AM, said:

You are in the wrong game. 5♣ is down on a diamond lead. If you start by bidding 2NT, you must follow up with 4NT in order to give partner the option of bidding his longer minor. 5♣ now should show 5-6 in the minors.

When you don't have a preference (equal length), let partner decide.

Roland

You could be down. Pd should have bid 5♦.
But anywhich way, you know the ♦J lead is singleton.
Play the ♣ Q at trick 2, not many West will play the K now.

GBB

[Walddk]

jillybean2, on Oct 17 2005, 06:14 PM, said:

I'm one of those thinks 4nt is always asking for aces... but trying to change that

2NT second in hand after 1 of a suit by RHO is known as "the unusual 2NT". Unusual because it doesn't show 20-21 hcp balanced as is the case if you open 2NT.

Maybe we could name 4NT in the same position as "the very unusual 4NT". Expert players all over the world need no agreement regarding 4NT in this context, even if they are not regular partnerships. It will always be interpreted as a two-suited hand, at least 6-5.

In another thread we have discussed 4NT. When is it Blackwood and when is it not? Some auctions are clear, others are not. I would regard this as clear: it is not Blackwood.

Once in a lifetime you would like to have 4NT as Blackwood second in hand. Something like:

x
AKQJ10xxx
x
AKQ

A hand like this "never" comes up, so 4NT as very unusual is of better use. Those hands are not frequent, admittedly, but they are more frequent than the one I showed above.

Roland

[Fluffy]

This kind of hands I take it easy: bid 2♦, then 6♣, partner will know what to do.