[Flame]

Holding KQJX(X) You lead K .
Later in the game u get to lead again.
Kanter say the lead of the J ask partner to drop the 10, meaning yo normaly would continue with the Q.
When i learned the basics we always continue with the J and Q denied the J.
Ofcourse you can say it depend on the exact situation...
But what is the normal play ?

[luke warm]

i always thought the lead of the Q here denies the J, so from what i've been taught that would be 'normal'

[barmar]

In general, when you have a semi-solid sequence and you want partner to drop the missing honor, I think you're supposed to lead the card above it the first time. So with KQJ98 you would play the J first. When partner holds the 10, he knows this isn't the top of a sequence, and usually he should be able to tell from his hand and the auction whether it's from a sequence like this or from shortness (if he can't tell, it probably doesn't matter whether he holds on to his 10).

Thus, if you play K first and later play the J, it denies the 98, and partner should hold on to his 10.

[paulg]

Jlall, on Nov 3 2005, 12:41 AM, said:

I lead K then J (if not leading low the second time) from KQJx(xxx), K then Q from KQx or KQJ tight.

I play the same. My guiding principle is that when I lead the Q I do not want partner to overtake or unblock.

Paul

[Flame]

I play the same too, thats why i was surprise to see kanter suggest otherwise.