inquiry, on Feb 27 2007, 12:32 PM, said:
But I will disagree with Todd. 3NT is "to play", thus it has to be natural. I see no qualms with that. Imagine an auction that goes...
Pass-Pass-4♠...
If you as the 4♠ what that shows (or his parnter), the best answer, no doubt is to play. He might have Jxxxxxxx xx xx x or as I saw in the cayne match last night, something like AKQTxxxx xx AQT --
I don't know, "to play, can be weak or very strongish" is any better.
But suppose the third seat 4♠ can also be x xxx x KQJTxxxx. Partner is supposed to pass in any case, but if the auction goes Pass-Pass-4♠-X-Pass-Pass-5♣, partner will know to pass that as well (basically partner will never bid in this auction). Suppose partner's seen the third-seat NV 4♠ bid with short spades and a long minor on several occasions in the past. Shouldn't this possibility be disclosed to opponents? And mightn't it be an illegal agreement in many SOs?
I think the very weakest of his hands, Glen is really using 3NT as a substitute for a minor-suit preempt, hoping to create some confusion and perhaps play 3NT undoubled instead of 4m doubled, or talk opponents out of a major suit game. Partner knows this hand is a possibility (especially NV) and doesn't push hard for slam in these situations (or double the opponents for penalty on hands that might double opposite a known strong hand from partner). While it's possible to argue that "3NT shows a strong hand and bidding it with 11 hcp and a ratty 7-card minor is a psych" I don't think the evidence supports this.