What's the meaning of 2NT? I don't mean in this hand, I mean in this sequence, what is the purpose of such a bid? What is West expected to do?
What is the meaning of this? An abnormal sequence, ATB
#1
Posted 2012-February-01, 04:39
What's the meaning of 2NT? I don't mean in this hand, I mean in this sequence, what is the purpose of such a bid? What is West expected to do?
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
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#2
Posted 2012-February-01, 05:43
George Carlin
#3
Posted 2012-February-01, 08:46
gwnn, on 2012-February-01, 05:43, said:
Can't be forcing. Partner is a passed hand.
Natural game try - balanced hand, values in diamonds.
Given that partner is a passed hand, the 2NT bid was misguided, IMO.
#4
Posted 2012-February-01, 08:59
On the given hand, you would like to play it as non forcing, but this will make it difficult to judge between 3 NT and 4 ♥ on stronger hands, so I would stick to the "normal" meaning even with a passed partner.
Roland
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#5
Posted 2012-February-01, 09:03
ArtK78, on 2012-February-01, 08:46, said:
In my opinion, it is not a good idea to stop in 2NT when we have a major suit fit, regardless of how many people in our partnership are passed hands.
George Carlin
#6
Posted 2012-February-01, 10:17
For some of us, however, the descriptive combination above with a 12-count is an impossible holding for a 1H overcall. So, 2NT would be an idle bid.
#7
Posted 2012-February-01, 10:57
ArtK78, on 2012-February-01, 08:46, said:
Does that mean responder can pass a 2♠ or 3♣ game try too?
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#8
Posted 2012-February-01, 11:55
Phil, on 2012-February-01, 10:57, said:
Let's not be silly here.
If everyone agrees that 2NT is a "balanced game try," then it should not be forcing. 2NT may be a reasonble place to play the hand.
Obviously, if opener bids 2♠ or 3♣ as a game try, it makes little sense to play in those contracts when there is a known heart fit. But no trump is different.
#9
Posted 2012-February-01, 12:15
Hanoi5, on 2012-February-01, 04:39, said:
2. What is West expected to do?
1. Lo and behold, it's NATURAL. Probably 13-14 or so. With 15-17 and a cue across, overcaller just bids 3NT. With less he bids 2H.
2. Whatever he thinks it's right, for heaven's sake. In this case 4H seems normal (we got aces, a doubleton and extra trumps).
#10
Posted 2012-February-01, 12:17
whereagles, on 2012-February-01, 12:15, said:
Interesting. In your world, what would a 1NT overcall have shown?
#11
Posted 2012-February-01, 12:27
ArtK78, on 2012-February-01, 11:55, said:
If everyone agrees that 2NT is a "balanced game try," then it should not be forcing. 2NT may be a reasonble place to play the hand.
yea I meant to say balanced hand, forcing. usually a game try but could be a strong hand. Anyway, I don't think 2NT is that often a reasonable place to play the hand. It very rarely is and now we even have a major suit fit.
George Carlin
#12
Posted 2012-February-01, 12:50
#13
Posted 2012-February-01, 12:55
Obviously on the actual hand, overcaller should just bid 2♥.
#14
Posted 2012-February-01, 13:27
I think it should be forcing if you don't overcall on 4-card suits very often. If you really think that is a 1H overcall (I don't) then it probably needs to be non-forcing, because you have enough extra high cards to make a game try but no certainty of a fit.
#16
Posted 2012-February-01, 15:50
whereagles, on 2012-February-01, 14:47, said:
You are confusing yourself. The hand was balanced with a four card major in this thread. Then partner made a passed hand game invite in hearts, as an advance to your 1H overcall. A hand with a 5-card heart overcall either accepts in hearts or declines in hearts --thereby not giving useful information to the opponents. Only the 4-card overcalls would have use for a natural NT rebid, and 15-17 would have overcalled 1NT in the first place.
#17
Posted 2012-February-01, 16:13
aguahombre, on 2012-February-01, 12:50, said:
George Carlin
#20
Posted 2012-February-01, 18:01