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What would you call

#1 User is offline   dwar0123 

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Posted 2012-September-19, 10:43

2/1, good partner


1. Do you double originally?
2. Assuming you did double originally, what do you call now?
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#2 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-September-19, 10:57

1. No, but it isn't clear whether the decision to double has affected anything. Maybe it put the better player as declarer.

2. 6, and let partner figure out whether it makes while she is playing it.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#3 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2012-September-19, 11:11

I would have over called in H first.

I like 6H, looks like it should have some shot, In fact I hope they dble :P
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#4 User is offline   Quantumcat 

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Posted 2012-September-19, 19:00

I would have bid 2 first, then if it went 1 2 2 P P ? I would make a takeout double, and correct 3 to 3 and partner would get the idea. Partner probably won't jump in clubs because they didn't bid 3 or double themselves, if they do jump it will be on long suit and not a strong hand, so it would be safe to leave them there.
I Transfers
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#5 User is offline   y66 

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Posted 2012-September-19, 19:16

2H originally. 6H now.
If you lose all hope, you can always find it again -- Richard Ford in The Sportswriter
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#6 User is offline   lowerline 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 09:36

View Postdwar0123, on 2012-September-19, 10:43, said:

2/1, good partner


1. Do you double originally?
2. Assuming you did double originally, what do you call now?


I don't bid 6. I don't want to punish partner for stretching to 3. I would have overcalled 2, but now I bid 5 and will double 5 if they bid it.

Steven
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#7 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 09:37

6 by everyone?? Um, wow lol.
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#8 User is offline   ahydra 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 09:44

I would have overcalled 2H... now, I have no idea. 6H seems a reasonable-ish shot but as others have mentioned partner may be stretching a bit. 5H should make so I think I'll call 5H.

ahydra
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#9 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 09:45

View Postlowerline, on 2012-September-20, 09:36, said:

I don't bid 6. I don't want to punish partner for stretching to 3. I would have overcalled 2, but now I bid 5 and will double 5 if they bid it.

Steven

While we don't go out of our way to look for magic hands, we also don't go out of our way to look for possible magic situations where a good partner would "stretch" to 3 that won't have a play for 6. Of course, there are style issues...like if the good partner and I have a way of showing a really crummy competitive stretch to 3H. XXX KJXXX XXX XX would qualify as really crummy, though; and I still wouldn't mind being in 6.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#10 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 09:55

Imagine poor partner with x KQJxx xx Qxxxx. He has been incredibly passive and bid only 3 instead of 4, which I might even laugh at him for later if we are friends. And our reward to him is to put him in an almost-no-play slam? I just don't get it. Why are we praying we have no loser AND he has the king of clubs AND the diamond finesse works? Cut him some slack, he was just competing to 3.

That is not to mention that if we have slam it could very well only be there in diamonds. xx KJxxx Kxxx xx, etc.

Of course I agree with everyone (well I assume everyone) that I wouldn't be here since I would have overcalled 2 to begin with. But I will be plenty happy if 5 makes without taking what seems to be a needless and random risk of bidding 6. I'm seriously trying to figure out these answers. Is it just mob mentality after the first person bid 6?
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#11 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 10:04

View Postaguahombre, on 2012-September-20, 09:45, said:

While we don't go out of our way to look for magic hands, we also don't go out of our way to look for possible magic situations where a good partner would "stretch" to 3 that won't have a play for 6. Of course, there are style issues...like if the good partner and I have a way of showing a really crummy competitive stretch to 3H. XXX KJXXX XXX XX would qualify as really crummy, though; and I still wouldn't mind being in 6.

Hoping that partner's diamonds + clubs are no more than 5 AND that diamonds run so you can take care of his club losers is nothing but a prayer. We must look at your example hand differently since I would very much mind being in 6. Do you just get a lot of 3-3 breaks on auctions where the opponents probably have distribution, not to mention that you need the finesse to work on top of it? You should play money bridge.
"What's the big rebid problem? After 1♦ - 1♠, I can rebid 1NT, 2♠, or 2♦."
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#12 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 11:20

5 seems totally normal. We need perfect cards for 6.
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#13 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 11:34

The only reason to bid 6 is as a semi bluff and pray your RHO saves.
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#14 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 11:35

View PostPhil, on 2012-September-20, 11:20, said:

5 seems totally normal. We need perfect cards for 6.

Agreed.

If 4NT is RKCB here then we can try slam if PD shows the ace and king since it is likely that the K
is onside. However, it seems quite unlikely that PD has a minor suit king in addition to the two missing key cards since he might have bid 4 with that.
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#15 User is offline   daveharty 

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Posted 2012-September-20, 13:20

1. No
2. 6
Revised Bridge Personality: 44 43 33 44

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#16 User is offline   lycier 

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Posted 2012-September-21, 00:57

1.bid 2
2.bid 5
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#17 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2012-September-21, 03:00

I think an original 2 overcall is absolutely clear. One option after 4 is to play a direct 5 as a slam try and 4NT followed by 5 as merely competitive. Am interested what our senior posters would use 4NT for on this auction.
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#18 User is offline   CSGibson 

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Posted 2012-September-21, 11:36

Who you gonna call? GHOSTBUSTERS!!!!


But seriously, I would have overcalled 2, double is a misstatement of the hand. Now I bid 5H, because I think its too much of a parlay in a competitive auction to bid 6 - even if everything works, we might have handling charges getting back to hand enough to take all the finesses you want/need to take. on the lead of, let's say, the king of clubs.
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#19 User is offline   SteveMoe 

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Posted 2012-September-21, 16:19

I bid 2 first.
My rebid deserves more consideration:
I have 4-losers. Partner is inviting/stretching in .
Like it or not the stretch hand would be a 8 HCP hand with 5, whereas any 8 loser with 4 hearts would also bid 3. (Let's leave the discussion about responsive doubles with 4 cards in the other major aside for now). With my holding I simply think partner is more likely to have the 9-11 HCP 4-loser with 4 hearts.
If so 6 seems right.
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#20 User is offline   y66 

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Posted 2012-September-22, 08:58

View Postlalldonn, on 2012-September-20, 09:55, said:

Imagine poor partner with x KQJxx xx Qxxxx. He has been incredibly passive and bid only 3 instead of 4, which I might even laugh at him for later if we are friends. And our reward to him is to put him in an almost-no-play slam? I just don't get it. Why are we praying we have no loser AND he has the king of clubs AND the diamond finesse works? Cut him some slack, he was just competing to 3.

That is not to mention that if we have slam it could very well only be there in diamonds. xx KJxxx Kxxx xx, etc.

Of course I agree with everyone (well I assume everyone) that I wouldn't be here since I would have overcalled 2 to begin with. But I will be plenty happy if 5 makes without taking what seems to be a needless and random risk of bidding 6. I'm seriously trying to figure out these answers. Is it just mob mentality after the first person bid 6?


Duly noted that pard can have x KQJxx xx Qxxxx. He can also have xxx QJxxx Kxx xx or xxx QJxxx xx Kxx or xxxx KJxxx xx Kx. In situations like this one, I tend to be overly optimistic and overweight the better hands and the odds that RHO has the DK if we need that.
If you lose all hope, you can always find it again -- Richard Ford in The Sportswriter
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