[deep]

5°Major diamond 4°

1° Question

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2♦ is transfer for ♥
Now South what better bid: 3♠ or stop 4♥?


2° question

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Now South what better bid 1♠ or 4♠?

Ty at all for help me sorry for my bad english

[MrAce]

1- East did not bid spades previous round. He is bidding now probably he doesnt wanna sell out to 2♥ (prebalancing). He is not trying to show lead either since he will be on lead. So his 2♠ bid doesn't neccesarilly mean he has a lot of spade values.

Assuming that you play texas, now you can bid 3♠ followed by 4♥ whatever pd cues, or just simply bid 4♥, which means slam try (or you would start with texas having no interest other than game)


2- I always try to avoid debating freak hands. Both 1♠ and 4♠ has merits. Yes we can make slam but hard to tell how the auction will proceed if we open 1♠, in my system pd can not even bid 2[c;] natural for example, that would be drury.

I would go with 4♠ because i probably won't know whether we have slam or not even if i open 1♠, so why give them a lot of room to tell their own stories ? Believe me this won't be uncontested auction and i am not sure how well we will do at 5 level.

[ArtK78]

1. When you responded 2♦ to 1NT, was this because you intended to try for slam? If not, you should have used Texas 4♦ to get to 4♥ directly (assuming that you play Texas Transfers). Now, the auction is going to get complicated. If you want to try for slam, then I agree with Ace that 3♠ is the right call over 2♠. You have a heart suit and game forcing values.

If you want to make a "mild slam try," then 4♥ is the call. Transferring to hearts followed by a game bid is a "mild slam try" since you could have signed off in 4♥ by using 4♦ Texas (again, assuming that you play Texas Transfers). This hand is worth a mild slam try, whatever that means.

2. I would open 1♠, as slam chances are significant. Opposite nothing more than Jxx of spades and the KQ of clubs, slam is nearly 100% (have to account for A and another club - ruffed, or a ruff of the first round of diamonds while the opps are still on lead as very small adverse possibilities). Figuring out if a slam is there may not be easy, but I don't think that you have to bash 4♠ to keep the opps out of the auction. One of the opps has already passed, so the chances that they are going to find a useful contract of their own have decreased, and you do have more than your share of HCP.

[MrAce]

ArtK78, on 2013-May-29, 09:32, said:

2. I would open 1♠, as slam chances are significant. Opposite nothing more than Jxx of spades and the KQ of clubs, slam is nearly 100% (have to account for A and another club - ruffed, or a ruff of the first round of diamonds while the opps are still on lead as very small adverse possibilities). Figuring out if a slam is there may not be easy, but I don't think that you have to bash 4♠ to keep the opps out of the auction. One of the opps has already passed, so the chances that they are going to find a useful contract of their own have decreased, and you do have more than your share of HCP.

How are you planning to bid Art ?

And i will give you an uncontested auction for the sake of argument.

I will give your pd ♠ K

I will give your pd no ♥ hcps

I will give him no ♦ values

I will give your pd KQx or AKx ♣

1♠--1NT
?

I mean i agree with everything u said but there is other side of the coin. Yes you need a little to make slam or even grandslam, but a max hand by pd may not be enough to make 5 also, and you know there is a good chance you will be pushed to 5 level if you go slow, on your way to wonder about the magic cards pd may hold. Despite the 9 card spades, you don't even have a solid trump to start with. Yes RHO is coming from pass but, so does your pd, He has 0-10 hcp, very likely short in spades and we expect him not to hold his values in red suits, even if he has any values. I know everyone finds the cards pd has in BBF accurately.

But i gave them all to your pd + uncontested auction for the sake of argument, so give me a convincing and objective auction that allows you to find that slam, when at the same time the same auction doesn not become costly in some other hands.

ArtK78, on 2013-May-29, 09:32, said:

2. I would open 1♠, as slam chances are significant. Opposite nothing more than Jxx of spades and the KQ of clubs, slam is nearly 100%

What are the chances of finding these cards, in real life, when someone doesn't give them to you for the sake of argument ? And what are the combined chances of knowing them and bidding accurately our slam ?

[PhilKing]

On the first hand, trying for slam is nuts.

You need an perfect with length in diamonds, eg:

♠xxx
♥KQx
♦AKxx
♣Axx

Yes, a doubleton club might make it good as well, but you will get too high twice for every good slam you reach.

On the second hand I open 1♠. Going slow on freaks has many ways to win. It's much harder for them to double 4♠ if we open it, and I want to play in 4♠ doubled.

[MrAce]

PhilKing, on 2013-May-29, 10:19, said:

On the first hand, trying for slam is nuts.

You need an perfect with length in diamonds, eg:

♠xxx
♥KQx
♦AKxx
♣Axx

Yes, a doubleton club might make it good as well, but you will get too high twice for every good slam you reach.

On the second hand I open 1♠. Going slow on freaks has many ways to win. It's much harder for them to double 4♠ if we open it, and I want to play in 4♠ doubled.

On hand 1 there other hands that makes slam look good too, xxx KQx Ax AQxxx or Axx KQx xx AQxxx and they don't lead ♦ Axx KQx AKxxx xx etc etc .But i agree it is small target.
Hand 2, Knowing my preempts, my chances of being doubled in 4♠ is higher