[Hanoi5]

We're white, they're red:

♠AJx
♥KQ
♦x
♣KQ98xxx

Partner opened 1NT (15-17), I bid 2♠ and she bid 2NT which shows the ♣A in this case. What should I bid then?

[ArtK78]

Is 3♠ a cue bid? If so, that makes sense.

If you play that any new suit after the 2NT bid shows shortness (a not uncommon treatment), then 3♦ is clear.

If you have no agreement, I would try 3♠ and assume that partner will take it as a cue bid, especially after you follow up with 4♥.

[pooltuna]

I would suggest 3♦ if system allows as a qbid for a control

[jmcw]

Hanoi5, on 2011-September-13, 07:04, said:

We're white, they're red:

♠AJx
♥KQ
♦x
♣KQ98xxx

Partner opened 1NT (15-17), I bid 2♠ and she bid 2NT which shows the ♣A in this case. What should I bid then?

I'm taking control.
Ask for keys.

If 1 play 5♣
2 play 6♣
If 3 ask for Kings and play 7 if 3 plus a King. All you need is a 3rd ♥ to pitch a ♠

[gwnn]

3♦ should show shortness. If it doesn't, you have to guess now.

[Hanoi5]

It's pairs, why would I want to play 5♣ when I can play 3NT?

[pooltuna]

Hanoi5, on 2011-September-13, 08:05, said:

It's pairs, why would I want to play 5♣ when I can play 3NT?

you don't but then 6♣ is probably odds on

[gwnn]

Because maybe 3NT goes down whilst 6♣ is cold. If 3♦ is shortness and partner bids 3NT, I am very happy to pass that.

[jmcw]

gwnn, on 2011-September-13, 08:09, said:

Because maybe 3NT goes down whilst 6♣ is cold. If 3♦ is shortness and partner bids 3NT, I am very happy to pass that.

Passing 3NT is not on my radar. For that to be right you need partner to have only 1 ace.
With 2 aces or more slam is a very strong favorite and I am not prepared to give up on that.
If I catch

Qxx
Jx
AQJxx
AJx

With 2 aces this about the worse hand partner could have, slam is likely down, but I'm willing to take the risk.

[andy_h]

I just want to keycard (or splinter then keycard) or just do something then keycard. I have a 15 count with a 7card suit and partner just told me about an awesome card! Ideally you would like to keycard below 4NT so you can bid 4NT to play after hearing 1 keycard opposite.

[mikeh]

gwnn, on 2011-September-13, 08:09, said:

Because maybe 3NT goes down whilst 6♣ is cold. If 3♦ is shortness and partner bids 3NT, I am very happy to pass that.

even at mps, I can't see passing 3N. I mean, we have a better hand than partner does, in any rational valuation method, and he opened a strong 1N!

Giving him only the club A, we can count 9 tricks and he has at least 11 hcp in addition.

Kxx Axx Axxx Axx is a sterile (tho control rich) 15 and we have 13 top tricks against any lead and any lie of the cards, so passing 3N seems, shall we say, a tad conservative.

I would bid 3♦ shortness, which is the common treatment, and over 3N would bid 4♣ to compell cue-bidding. If he bids 4♦, I keycard and, if we have them all, I ask for specific Kings.

if he bids 4♥, I bid 6♣.

If he bids 4N, then I reluctantly pass


Note that he shouldn't cue the diamond K over 4♣ if he owns only 1 Ace....imagine how bad his hand must be with at most Jx(x)(x) in hearts, no spade A and diamonds opposite my stiff/void.

[gwnn]

yes pass of 3n is bad, thanks for your help i was trying to answer the 3nt question but forgot to look at the hand.

[mikeh]

gwnn, on 2011-September-13, 09:27, said:

yes pass of 3n is bad, thanks for your help i was trying to answer the 3nt question but forgot to look at the hand.

been there, done that (many times)

[gnasher]

mikeh, on 2011-September-13, 09:15, said:

I would bid 3♦ shortness, which is the common treatment, and over 3N would bid 4♣ to compell cue-bidding. If he bids 4♦, I keycard and, if we have them all, I ask for specific Kings.

if he bids 4♥, I bid 6♣.

If he bids 4N, then I reluctantly pass

What if he bids 4♠? Now you want to sign off in 4NT. but you can't.

To avoid this problem, I think I would have bid Gerber on the first round. Opposite one ace I'd sign off in 4NT; opposite two I'd bid 6NT, and opposite three I'd bid 7NT. I'm not very interested in 6♣, because the field will mostly be in slam too.

[mikeh]

gnasher, on 2011-September-13, 09:42, said:

What if he bids 4♠? Now you want to sign off in 4NT. but you can't.

To avoid this problem, I think I would have bid Gerber on the first round. Opposite one ace I'd sign off in 4NT; opposite two I'd bid 6NT, and opposite three I'd bid 7NT. I'm not very interested in 6♣, because the field will mostly be in slam too.

Hmmm...he cooperates in a slam try holding no aces other than the diamond Ace, and at best Jx in hearts....KQxx Jx KQJ AJxx...gives him literally every missing high card and 4 card support for our 7 card suit so is the absolute best he could hold...I'm having trouble understanding why he cue bid this hand. To me, opposite diamond shortness, this is a 4N bid...partner has some values in hearts, since he is slamming with a stiff diamond and at most 10 hcp in the blacks.

[xxhong]

This is a simple RKC hand after the transfer. Holding 15 HCP, decent 7 card suit and partner showed CA, there is just no way to play 3NT.

Hanoi5, on 2011-September-13, 07:04, said:

We're white, they're red:

♠AJx
♥KQ
♦x
♣KQ98xxx

Partner opened 1NT (15-17), I bid 2♠ and she bid 2NT which shows the ♣A in this case. What should I bid then?

[VM1973]

I endorse the shortness showing bid. You have enough for 11.5 tricks as it is. The key is identifying potential wasted values in the diamonds.

[ggwhiz]

jmcw, on 2011-September-13, 07:51, said:

I'm taking control.
Ask for keys.

If 1 play 5♣
2 play 6♣
If 3 ask for Kings and play 7 if 3 plus a King. All you need is a 3rd ♥ to pitch a ♠

Same here but If only 1 I have no problem bidding 5♠ and passing the forced 5nt bid. It would take a miracle to beat it.

[gnasher]

mikeh, on 2011-September-13, 10:26, said:

Hmmm...he cooperates in a slam try holding no aces other than the diamond Ace, and at best Jx in hearts....KQxx Jx KQJ AJxx...gives him literally every missing high card and 4 card support for our 7 card suit so is the absolute best he could hold...I'm having trouble understanding why he cue bid this hand. To me, opposite diamond shortness, this is a 4N bid...partner has some values in hearts, since he is slamming with a stiff diamond and at most 10 hcp in the blacks.

Can't you have AJx Ax x KQ9xxxx, or Axx AKx x Kxxxxx?

Also, if partner is supposed to sign off with KQxx Jx KQJ AJxx, shouldn't he also sign off with Qxx Axx KJx AJx?

Partner's already said he's unsuitable, but then we initiated a cue-bidding sequence anyway. I think he has to have a really bad hand to sign off a second time.

[MrAce]

gnasher, on 2011-September-13, 09:42, said:

What if he bids 4♠? Now you want to sign off in 4NT. but you can't.

To avoid this problem, I think I would have bid Gerber on the first round. Opposite one ace I'd sign off in 4NT; opposite two I'd bid 6NT, and opposite three I'd bid 7NT. I'm not very interested in 6♣, because the field will mostly be in slam too.

Andy, why are you and Mike assuming this is a mp ? Did i miss something ?

EDIT : Nevermind , i just saw Hanoi later said it is pairs.